Hospital Medicines List New Zealand October 2018 6 3 2018-10-01
Preferred Medicines List Alimentary Tract and Metabolism Antacids and Antiflatulents Antacids and Reflux Barrier Agents Aluminium hydroxide with magnesium hydroxide and simeticone Tab 200 mg with magnesium hydroxide 200 mg and simeticone 20 mg e.g. Mylanta 0 Oral liq 400 mg with magnesium hydroxide 400 mg and simeticone 30 mg per 5 ml e.g. Mylanta Double Strength 0 Simeticone Oral drops 100 mg per ml Any 0 Oral drops 20 mg per 0.3 ml Any 0 Sodium alginate with magnesium alginate Powder for oral soln 225 mg with magnesium alginate 87.5 mg, sachet e.g. Gaviscon Infant 0 Sodium citrate Oral liq 8.8% (300 mmol/l) Any 0 Sodium alginate with sodium bicarbonate and calcium carbonate Tab 500 mg with sodium bicarbonate 267 mg and calcium carbonate 160 mg e.g. Gaviscon Double Strength 0 Oral liq 500 mg with sodium bicarbonate 267 mg and calcium carbonate 160 mg per 10 ml Acidex 500 4.95 Phosphate Binding Agents Aluminium hydroxide Tab 600 mg Any 0 Calcium carbonate <range>Calcium carbonate</range> Only for use in children under 12 years of age for use as a phosphate binding agent medical practitioner Antidiarrhoeals and Intestinal Anti-Inflammatory Agents Antipropulsives Diphenoxylate hydrochloride with atropine sulphate Tab 2.5 mg with atropine sulphate 25 mcg Any 0 Loperamide hydrochloride Tab 2 mg Nodia 400 10.75 Cap 2 mg Diamide Relief 400 7.05 Rectal and Colonic Anti-Inflammatories Olsalazine Cap 250 mg Dipentum 100 53.00 Tab 500 mg Dipentum 100 93.37 Sodium cromoglicate Cap 100 mg Any 0 Budesonide <range>Budesonide</range> Mild to moderate ileal, ileocaecal or proximal Crohn's disease Diabetes Cushingoid habitus Osteoporosis where there is significant risk of fracture Severe acne following treatment with conventional corticosteroid therapy History of severe psychiatric problems associated with corticosteroid treatment History of major mental illness (such as bipolar affective disorder) where the risk of conventional corticosteroid treatment causing relapse is considered to be high Relapse during pregnancy (where conventional corticosteroids are considered to be contraindicated) medical practitioner Patient has a diagnosis of microscopic colitis (collagenous or lymphocytic colitis) by colonoscopy with biopsies medical practitioner Patient has gut Graft versus Host disease following allogenic bone marrow transplantation medical practitioner Mesalazine Enema 1 g per 100 ml Pentasa 7 41.30 Suppos 500 mg Asacol 20 22.80 20 22.80 Suppos 1 g Pentasa 30 54.60 Tab EC 400 mg Asacol 100 49.50 100 49.50 Tab long-acting 500 mg Pentasa 100 59.05 Tab EC 500 mg Asamax 100 49.50 Modified release granules 1 g Pentasa 120 141.72 Tab 800 mg Asacol 90 85.50 90 85.50 Hydrocortisone acetate Rectal foam 10%, CFC free (14 applications) Colifoam 21.1 26.55 Sulfasalazine Tab 500 mg Salazopyrin 100 14.00 Tab EC 500 mg Salazopyrin EN 100 13.50 Local Preparations for Anal and Rectal Disorders Antihaemorrhoidal Preparations Fluocortolone caproate with fluocortolone pivalate and cinchocaine Oint 950 mcg with fluocortolone pivalate 920 mcg and cinchocaine hydrochloride 5 mg per g Ultraproct 30 6.35 Suppos 630 mcg with fluocortolone pivalate 610 mcg and cinchocaine hydrochloride 1 mg Ultraproct 12 2.66 Cinchocaine hydrochloride with hydrocortisone Oint 5 mg with hydrocortisone 5 mg per g Proctosedyl 30 15.00 Suppos 5 mg with hydrocortisone 5 mg per g Proctosedyl 12 9.90 Management of Anal Fissures Glyceryl trinitrate Oint 0.2% Rectogesic 30 22.00 Rectal Sclerosants Oily phenol [Phenol oily] Inj 5%, 5 ml vial Any 0 Antispasmodics and Other Agents Altering Gut Motility Antispasmodics and Other Agents Altering Gut Motility Hyoscine butylbromide Inj 20 mg, 1 ml ampoule Buscopan 5 9.57 Tab 10 mg Buscopan 100 8.75 Glycopyrronium bromide Inj 200 mcg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Max Health 10 1 17.14 Mebeverine hydrochloride Tab 135 mg Colofac 90 18.00 90 18.00 Antiulcerants Antisecretory and Cytoprotective Misoprostol Tab 200 mcg Cytotec 120 41.50 H2 Antagonists Cimetidine Tab 200 mg Any 0 Tab 400 mg Any 0 Ranitidine Inj 25 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Zantac 5 8.75 Tab 150 mg Ranitidine Relief 500 12.91 Tab 300 mg Ranitidine Relief 500 18.21 Oral liq 150 mg per 10 ml Peptisoothe 300 5.14 Proton Pump Inhibitors Omeprazole Cap 10 mg Omeprazole actavis 10 90 1.98 Cap 20 mg Omeprazole actavis 20 90 1.96 Cap 40 mg Omeprazole actavis 40 90 3.12 Inj 40 mg vial Omezol IV 5 13.00 Inj 40 mg ampoule with diluent Dr Reddy's Omeprazole 5 33.98 Tab dispersible 20 mg <range>Omeprazole - Tab dispersible 20 mg</range> Only for use in tube-fed patients medical practitioner Powder for oral liq Midwest 5 42.50 Lansoprazole Cap 30 mg Lanzol Relief 100 5.41 Cap 15 mg Lanzol Relief 100 4.58 Pantoprazole Tab EC 20 mg Panzop Relief 100 2.41 Tab EC 40 mg Panzop Relief 100 3.35 Inj 40 mg vial Any 0 Site Protective Agents Sucralfate Tab 1 g Any 0 Colloidal bismuth subcitrate Tab 120 mg Gastrodenol 50 14.51 Bile and Liver Therapy Bile and Liver Therapy L-ornithine L-aspartate <range>L-ornithine L-aspartate</range> For patients with chronic hepatic encephalopathy who have not responded to treatment with, or are intolerant to lactulose, or where lactulose is contraindicated medical practitioner Rifaximin <range>Rifaximin</range> For patients with hepatic encephalopathy despite an adequate trial of maximum tolerated doses of lactulose medical practitioner Diabetes Alpha Glucosidase Inhibitors Acarbose Tab 50 mg Glucobay 90 3.50 Tab 100 mg Glucobay 90 6.40 Hyperglycaemic Agents Glucose with sucrose and fructose Gel 19.7% with sucrose 35% and fructose 19.7%, 18 g sachet Any 0 Glucose [Dextrose] Gel 40% Any 0 Tab 1.5 g Any 0 Tab 3.1 g Any 0 Tab 4 g Any 0 Glucagon hydrochloride Inj 1 mg syringe kit Glucagen Hypokit 1 32.00 Diazoxide <range>Diazoxide</range> For patients with confirmed hypoglycaemia caused by hyperinsulinism medical practitioner Insulin - Intermediate-Acting Preparations Insulin isophane Inj insulin human 100 u per ml, 10 ml vial Any 0 Inj insulin human 100 u per ml, 3 ml cartridge Any 0 Insulin neutral with insulin isophane Inj insulin neutral 30% with insulin isophane 70%, 100 u per ml, 10 ml vial Any 0 Inj insulin neutral 30% with insulin isophane 70%, 100 u per ml, 3 ml cartridge Any 0 Inj insulin neutral 40% with insulin isophane 60%, 100 u per ml, 3 ml cartridge Any 0 Inj insulin neutral 50% with insulin isophane 50%, 100 u per ml, 3 ml cartridge Any 0 Insulin lispro with insulin lispro protamine Inj insulin lispro 50% with insulin lispro protamine 50%, 100 u per ml, 3 ml cartridge Humalog Mix 50 5 42.66 Inj insulin lispro 25% with insulin lispro protamine 75%, 100 u per ml, 3 ml cartridge Humalog Mix 25 5 42.66 Insulin aspart with insulin aspart protamine Inj insulin aspart 30% with insulin aspart protamine 70%, 100 u per ml, 3 ml prefilled pen NovoMix 30 FlexPen 5 52.15 Insulin - Long-Acting Preparations Insulin glargine Inj 100 u per ml, 3 ml disposable pen Lantus SoloStar 5 94.50 Inj 100 u per ml, 3 ml cartridge Lantus 5 94.50 Inj 100 u per ml, 10 ml vial Lantus 1 63.00 Insulin - Rapid-Acting Preparations Insulin aspart Inj 100 u per ml, 10 ml vial Any 0 Inj 100 u per ml, 3 ml cartridge Any 0 Inj 100 u per ml, 3 ml syringe NovoRapid FlexPen 5 51.19 Insulin lispro Inj 100 u per ml, 10 ml vial Any 0 Inj 100 u per ml, 3 ml cartridge Any 0 Insulin glulisine Inj 100 u per ml, 10 ml vial Apidra 1 27.03 Inj 100 u per ml, 3 ml cartridge Apidra 5 46.07 Inj 100 u per ml, 3 ml disposable pen Apidra Solostar 5 46.07 Insulin - Short-Acting Preparations Insulin neutral Inj human 100 u per ml, 10 ml vial Any 0 Inj human 100 u per ml, 3 ml cartridge Any 0 Oral Hypoglycaemic Agents Glibenclamide Tab 5 mg Daonil 100 6.00 Vildagliptin Tab 50 mg Galvus 60 40.00 Vildagliptin with metformin hydrochloride Tab 50 mg with 850 mg metformin hydrochloride Galvumet 60 40.00 Tab 50 mg with 1,000 mg metformin hydrochloride Galvumet 60 40.00 Metformin hydrochloride Tab immediate-release 500 mg Apotex 1000 8.63 Metchek 1000 9.59 Tab immediate-release 850 mg Metformin Mylan 500 7.82 Pioglitazone Tab 15 mg Vexazone 90 3.47 Tab 30 mg Vexazone 90 5.06 Tab 45 mg Vexazone 90 7.10 Gliclazide Tab 80 mg Glizide 500 10.29 Glipizide Tab 5 mg Minidiab 100 3.27 Digestives Including Enzymes Digestives Including Enzymes Pancreatic enzyme Cap pancreatin 150 mg (amylase 8,000 Ph Eur U, lipase 10,000 Ph Eur U, total protease 600 Ph Eur U) Creon 10000 100 34.93 Cap pancreatin 300 mg (amylase 18,000 Ph Eur U, lipase 25,000 Ph Eur U, total protease 1,000 Ph Eur U) Creon 25000 100 94.38 Cap pancreatin (175 mg (25,000 U lipase, 22,500 U amylase, 1,250 U protease)) Any 0 Powder pancreatin 60.12 mg (3,600 Ph. Eur. u/amylase, 5,000 Ph. Eur. u/lipase and 200 Ph. Eur. u/protease) Any 0 Ursodeoxycholic acid <range>Ursodeoxycholic acid</range> Patient has been diagnosed with Alagille syndrome Patient has progressive familial intrahepatic cholestasis medical practitioner Patient has chronic severe drug induced cholestatic liver injury Cholestatic liver injury not due to Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) use in adults Treatment with ursodeoxycholic acid may prevent hospital admission or reduce duration of stay medical practitioner Primary biliary cholangitis confirmed by antimitochondrial antibody titre (AMA) > 1:80, and raised cholestatic liver enzymes with or without raised serum IgM or, if AMA is negative by liver biopsy Patient not requiring a liver transplant (bilirubin > 100 umol/l; decompensated cirrhosis medical practitioner Patient diagnosed with cholestasis of pregnancy medical practitioner Patient at risk of veno-occlusive disease or has hepatic impairment and is undergoing conditioning treatment prior to allogenic stem cell or bone marrow transplantation Treatment for up to 13 weeks medical practitioner Paediatric patient has developed abnormal liver function as indicated on testing which is likely to be induced by TPN Liver function has not improved with modifying the TPN composition medical practitioner Laxatives Bowel-Cleansing Preparations Citric acid with magnesium oxide and sodium picosulfate Powder for oral soln 12 g with magnesium oxide 3.5 g and sodium picosulfate 10 mg per sachet e.g. PicoPrep 0 Macrogol 3350 with ascorbic acid, potassium chloride and sodium chloride Powder for oral soln 755.68 mg with ascorbic acid 85.16 mg, potassium chloride 10.55 mg, sodium chloride 37.33 mg and sodium sulphate 80.62 mg per g, 210 g sachet e.g. Glycoprep-C 0 Powder for oral soln 755.68 mg with ascorbic acid 85.16 mg, potassium chloride 10.55 mg, sodium chloride 37.33 mg and sodium sulphate 80.62 mg per g, 70 g sachet e.g. Glycoprep-C 0 Macrogol 3350 with potassium chloride, sodium bicarbonate, sodium chloride and sodium sulphate Powder for oral soln 59 g with potassium chloride 0.7425 g, sodium bicarbonate 1.685 g, sodium chloride 1.465 g and sodium sulphate 5.685 g per sachet Klean Prep 4 14.31 Bulk-Forming Agents Ispaghula (psyllium) husk Powder for oral soln Konsyl-D 500 6.05 Sterculia with frangula

For continuation only

Powder for oral soln Any 0 Faecal Softeners Docusate sodium with sennosides Tab 50 mg with sennosides 8 mg Laxsol 200 3.10 Poloxamer Oral drops 10% Coloxyl 30 3.78 Paraffin Enema 133 ml Any 0 Oral liquid 1 mg per ml Any 0 Docusate sodium Tab 50 mg Coloxyl 100 2.31 Tab 120 mg Coloxyl 100 3.13 Opioid Receptor Antagonists - Peripheral Methylnaltrexone bromide <range>Methylnaltrexone bromide</range> The patient is receiving palliative care Oral and rectal treatments for opioid induced constipation are ineffective Oral and rectal treatments for opioid induced constipation are unable to be tolerated medical practitioner Osmotic Laxatives Sodium phosphate with phosphoric acid Enema 10% with phosphoric acid 6.58% Fleet Phosphate Enema 1 2.50 Oral liq 16.4% with phosphoric acid 25.14% Any 0 Sodium citrate with sodium lauryl sulphoacetate Enema 90 mg with sodium lauryl sulphoacetate 9 mg per ml, 5 ml Micolette 50 26.72 Glycerol Suppos 1.27 g Any 0 Suppos 2.55 g Any 0 Suppos 3.6 g PSM 20 9.25 Macrogol 3350 with potassium chloride, sodium bicarbonate and sodium chloride Powder for oral soln 6.563 g with potassium chloride 23.3 mg, sodium bicarbonate 89.3 mg and sodium chloride 175.4 mg Any 0 Powder for oral soln 13.125 g with potassium chloride 46.6 mg, sodium bicarbonate 178.5 mg and sodium chloride 350.7 mg Molaxole 30 6.78 Lactulose Oral liq 10 g per 15 ml Laevolac 500 3.18 Stimulant Laxatives Sennosides Tab 7.5 mg Any 0 Bisacodyl Suppos 10 mg Lax-Suppositories 10 3.74 Tab 5 mg Lax-Tabs 200 5.99 Metabolic Disorder Agents Metabolic Disorder Agents Arginine Inj 600 mg per ml, 25 ml vial Any 0 Powder Any 0 Betaine <range>Betaine</range> The patient has a confirmed diagnosis of homocystinuria A cystathionine beta-synthase (CBS) deficiency A 5,10-methylene-tetrahydrofolate reductase (MTHFR) deficiency A disorder of intracellular cobalamin metabolism An appropriate homocysteine level has not been achieved despite a sufficient trial of appropriate vitamin supplementation metabolic physician 12 The treatment remains appropriate and the patient is benefiting from treatment metabolic physician 12 Haem arginate Inj 25 mg per ml, 10 ml ampoule Any 0 Imiglucerase <range>Imiglucerase</range> Only for use in patients with approval by the Gaucher's Treatment Panel medical practitioner Levocarnitine <range>Levocarnitine</range> No patient criteria neurologist metabolic physician metabolic disorders dietitian Sodium benzoate Cap 500 mg Any 0 Inj 20%, 10 ml ampoule Any 0 Powder Any 0 Soln 100 mg per ml Any 0 Sodium phenylbutyrate <range>Sodium phenylbutyrate</range> For the chronic management of a urea cycle disorder involving a deficiency of carbamylphosphate synthetase, ornithine transcarbamylase or argininosuccinate synthetase metabolic physician 12 The treatment remains appropriate and the patient is benefiting from treatment metabolic physician 12 Trientine dihydrochloride Cap 300 mg Any 0 Biotin <range>Biotin</range> No patient criteria metabolic physician metabolic disorders dietitian Pyridoxal-5-phosphate <range>Pyridoxal-5-phosphate</range> No patient criteria neurologist metabolic physician metabolic disorders dietitian Galsulfase <range>Galsulfase</range> The patient has been diagnosed with mucopolysaccharidosis VI Diagnosis confirmed by demonstration of N-acetyl-galactosamine-4-sulfatase (arylsulfatase B) deficiency confirmed by either enzyme activity assay in leukocytes or skin fibroblasts Detection of two disease causing mutations and patient has a sibling who is known to have mucopolysaccharidosis VI metabolic physician 12 The treatment remains appropriate for the patient and the patient is benefiting from treatment Patient has not had severe infusion-related adverse reactions which were not preventable by appropriate pre-medication and/or adjustment of infusion rates Patient has not developed another life threatening or severe disease where the long term prognosis is unlikely to be influenced by Enzyme Replacement Therapy (ERT) Patient has not developed another medical condition that might reasonably be expected to compromise a response to ERT metabolic physician 12 Alglucosidase alfa <range>Alglucosidase Alfa</range> The patient is aged up to 24 months at the time of initial application and has been diagnosed with infantile Pompe disease Diagnosis confirmed by documented deficiency of acid alpha-glucosidase by prenatal diagnosis using chorionic villus biopsies and/or cultured amniotic cells Documented deficiency of acid alpha-glucosidase, and urinary tetrasaccharide testing indicating a diagnostic elevation of glucose tetrasaccharides Documented deficiency of acid alpha-glucosidase, and documented molecular genetic testing indicating a disease-causing mutation in the acid alpha-glucosidase gene (GAA gene) Documented urinary tetrasaccharide testing indicating a diagnostic elevation of glucose tetrasaccharides, and molecular genetic testing indicating a disease-causing mutation in the GAA gene Patient has not required long-term invasive ventilation for respiratory failure prior to starting enzyme replacement therapy (ERT) Patient does not have another life-threatening or severe disease where the prognosis is unlikely to be influenced by ERT or might be reasonably expected to compromise a response to ERT Alglucosidase alfa to be administered at doses no greater than 20 mg/kg every 2 weeks metabolic physician 12 The treatment remains appropriate for the patient and the patient is benefiting from treatment Alglucosidase alfa to be administered at doses no greater than 20 mg/kg every 2 weeks Patient has not had severe infusion-related adverse reactions which were not preventable by appropriate pre-medication and/or adjustment of infusion rates Patient has not developed another life threatening or severe disease where the long term prognosis is unlikely to be influenced by ERT Patient has not developed another medical condition that might reasonably be expected to compromise a response to ERT There is no evidence of life threatening progression of respiratory disease as evidenced by the needed for >14 days of invasive ventilation There is no evidence of new or progressive cardiomyopathy metabolic physician 12 Idursulfase <range>Idursulfase</range> The patient has been diagnosed with Hunter Syndrome (mucopolysacchardosis II) Diagnosis confirmed by demonstration of iduronate 2-sulfatase deficiency in white blood cells by either enzyme assay in cultured skin fibroblasts Detection of a disease causing mutation in the iduronate 2-sulfatase gene Patient is going to proceed with a haematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) within the next 3 months and treatment with idursulfase would be bridging treatment to transplant Patient has not required long-term invasive ventilation for respiratory failure prior to starting Enzyme Replacement Therapy (ERT) Idursulfase to be administered for a total of 24 weeks (equivalent to 12 weeks pre- and 12 weeks post-HSCT) at doses no greater than 0.5 mg/kg every week metabolic physician 24 Laronidase <range>Laronidase</range> The patient has been diagnosed with Hurler Syndrome (mucopolysacchardosis I-H) Diagnosis confirmed by demonstration of alpha-L-iduronidase deficiency in white blood cells by either enzyme assay in cultured skin fibroblasts Detection of two disease causing mutations in the alpha-L-iduronidase gene and patient has a sibling who is known to have Hurler syndrome Patient is going to proceed with a haematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) within the next 3 months and treatment with laronidase would be bridging treatment to transplant Patient has not required long-term invasive ventilation for respiratory failure prior to starting Enzyme Replacement Therapy (ERT) Laronidase to be administered for a total of 24 weeks (equivalent to 12 weeks pre- and 12 post-HSCT) at doses no greater than 100 units/kg every week metabolic physician 24 Taliglucerase alfa <range>Imiglucerase</range> Only for use in patients with approval by the Gaucher's Treatment Panel medical practitioner Minerals Calcium Calcium carbonate Tab eff 1.75 g (1 g elemental) Calsource 10 2.07 Tab 1.25 g (500 mg elemental) Arrow-Calcium 250 7.52 Fluoride Sodium fluoride Tab 1.1 mg (0.5 mg elemental) Any 0 Iodine Potassium iodate Tab 253 mcg (150 mcg elemental iodine) NeuroTabs 90 4.69 Potassium iodate with iodine Oral liq 10% with iodine 5% Any 0 Iron Ferrous gluconate with ascorbic acid Tab 170 mg (20 mg elemental) with ascorbic acid 40 mg Any 0 Ferrous sulphate with ascorbic acid Tab long-acting 325 mg (105 mg elemental) with ascorbic acid 500 mg Any 0 Ferric carboxymaltose <range>Ferric carboxymaltose</range> Treatment with oral iron has proven ineffective or is clinically inappropriate medical practitioner Iron polymaltose Inj 50 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Ferrum H 5 15.22 Ferrous sulphate Tab long-acting 325 mg (105 mg elemental) Ferrograd 30 2.06 30 2.06 Oral liq 30 mg (6 mg elemental) per ml Ferodan 500 10.80 Ferrous fumarate Tab 200 mg (65 mg elemental) Ferro-tab 100 2.89 Ferrous fumarate with folic acid Tab 310 mg (100 mg elemental) with folic acid 350 mcg Ferro-F-Tabs 60 4.68 Iron sucrose Inj 20 mg per ml, 5 ml ampoule Venofer 5 100.00 Magnesium Magnesium hydroxide Tab 311 mg (130 mg elemental) Any 0 Magnesium oxide Cap 663 mg (400 mg elemental) Any 0 Magnesium chloride Inj 1 mmol per 1 ml, 100 ml bag Any 0 Magnesium sulphate Inj 0.4 mmol per ml, 250 ml bag Any 0 Inj 2 mmol per ml, 5 ml ampoule DBL 10 10.21 Zinc Zinc Oral liq 5 mg per 5 drops Any 0 Zinc chloride Inj 5.3 mg per ml (5.1 mg per ml elemental), 2 ml ampoule Any 0 Zinc sulphate Cap 137.4 mg (50 mg elemental) Zincaps 100 11.00 Mouth and Throat Agents Used in Mouth Ulceration Benzydamine hydrochloride Soln 0.15% Any 0 Spray 0.15% Any 0 Spray 0.3% Any 0 Benzydamine hydrochloride with cetylpyridinium chloride Lozenge 3 mg with cetylpyridinium chloride Any 0 Carboxymethylcellulose Oral spray Any 0 Carmellose sodium with pectin and gelatine Paste Any 0 Powder Any 0 Choline salicylate with cetalkonium chloride Adhesive gel 8.7% with cetalkonium chloride 0.01% Any 0 Dichlorobenzyl alcohol with amylmetacresol Lozenge 1.2 mg with amylmetacresol 0.6 mg Any 0 Triamcinolone acetonide Paste 0.1% Kenalog in Orabase 5 5.33 Chlorhexidine gluconate Mouthwash 0.2% healthE 200 2.57 Oropharyngeal Anti-Infectives Amphotericin B Lozenge 10 mg Fungilin 20 5.86 Nystatin Oral liquid 100,000 u per ml Nilstat 24 1.95 Miconazole Oral gel 20 mg per g Decozol 40 4.74 Other Oral Agents Thymol glycerin Compound, BPC PSM 500 9.15 Sodium hyaluronate [Hyaluronic acid] <range>Sodium hyaluronate</range> No patient criteria otolaryngologist Vitamins Multivitamin Preparations Multivitamins cap vitamin A 2500 u, betacarotene 3 mg, cholecalciferol 11 mcg, alpha tocopherol 150 u, phytomenadione 150 mcg, folic acid 0.2 mg, ascorbic acid 100 mg, thiamine 1.5 mg, pantothenic acid 12 mg, riboflavin 1.7 mg, niacin 20 mg, pyridoxine hydrochloride 1.9 mg, cyanocobalamin 3 mcg, zinc 7.5 mg and biotin 100 mcg <range>Multivitamins - Cap </range> Patient has cystic fibrosis with pancreatic insufficiency Patient is an infant or child with liver disease or short gut syndrome Patient has severe malabsorption syndrome medical practitioner Inj thiamine hydrochloride 250 mg with riboflavin 4 mg and pyridoxine hydrochloride 50 mg, 5 ml ampoule (1) and inj ascorbic acid 500 mg with nicotinamide 160 mg and glucose 1000 mg, 5 ml ampoule (1) e.g. Pabrinex IV 0 Inj thiamine hydrochloride 250 mg with riboflavin 4 mg and pyridoxine hydrochloride 50 mg, 5 ml ampoule (1) and inj ascorbic acid 500 mg with nicotinamide 160 mg, 2 ml ampoule (1) e.g. Pabrinex IM 0 Inj thiamine hydrochloride 500 mg with riboflavin 8 mg and pyridoxine hydrochloride 100 mg, 10 ml ampoule (1) and inj ascorbic acid 1000 mg with nicotinamide 320 mg and glucose 2000 mg, 10 ml ampoule (1) e.g. Pabrinex IV 0 Powder vitamin A 4200 mcg with vitamin D 155.5 mcg, vitamin E 21.4 mg, vitamin C 400 mg, vitamin K1 166 mcg thiamine 3.2 mg, riboflavin 4.4 mg, niacin 35 mg, vitamin B6 3.4 mg, folic acid 303 mcg, vitamin B12 8.6 mcg, biotin 214 mcg, pantothenic acid 17 mg, choline 350 mg and inositol 700 mg <range>Multivitamins – Powder</range> Patient has inborn errors of metabolism medical practitioner Tab (BPC cap strength) Mvite 1000 10.50 Vitamin A with vitamins D and C Soln 1,000 u with vitamin D 400 u and ascorbic acid 30 mg per 10 drops e.g. Vitadol C 0 Multivitamin and mineral supplement <range>Multivitamin and mineral supplement</range> Patient was admitted to hospital with burns Burn size is greater than 15% of total body surface area (BSA) for all types of burns Burn size is greater than 10% of BSA for mid-dermal or deep dermal burns Nutritional status prior to admission or dietary intake is poor medical practitioner 3 Multivitamin renal <range>Multivitamin renal</range> The patient has chronic kidney disease and is receiving either peritoneal dialysis or haemodialysis The patient has chronic kidney disease grade 5, defined as patient with an estimated glomerular filtration rate of < 15 ml/min/1.73m² body surface area (BSA) medical practitioner Vitamin A Retinol Cap 25,000 iu Any 0 Oral liq 150,000 iu per ml Any 0 Tab 10,000 iu Any 0 Vitamin B Thiamine hydrochloride Inj 100 mg per ml, 2 ml vial Any 0 Tab 100 mg Any 0 Tab 50 mg Max Health 100 4.89 Inj 100 mg per ml, 1 ml vial e.g. Benerva 0 Vitamin B complex Tab strong, BPC Bplex 500 7.15 Hydroxocobalamin Inj 1 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Neo-B12 3 1.89 Pyridoxine hydrochloride Inj 100 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Any 0 Tab 25 mg Vitamin B6 25 90 2.70 Tab 50 mg Apo-Pyridoxine 500 13.63 Inj 100 mg per ml, 30 ml vial Any 0 Vitamin C Ascorbic acid Tab chewable 250 mg Any 0 Tab 100 mg Cvite 500 8.10 Vitamin D Alfacalcidol Oral drops 2 mcg per ml One-Alpha 20 60.68 Cap 0.25 mcg One-Alpha 100 26.32 Cap 1 mcg One-Alpha 100 87.98 Calcitriol Inj 1 mcg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Any 0 Oral liq 1 mcg per ml Any 0 Cap 0.25 mcg Calcitriol-AFT 100 9.95 Cap 0.5 mcg Calcitriol-AFT 100 18.39 Colecalciferol Cap 1.25 mg (50,000 iu) Vit.D3 12 2.50 Vitamin E Alpha tocopheryl acetate <range>Alpha tocopheryl acetate</range> Cystic fibrosis patient Patient has tried and failed the other available funded fat soluble vitamin A,D,E,K supplement (Vitabdeck) The other available funded fat soluble vitamin A,D,E,K supplement (Vitabdeck) is contraindicated or clinically inappropriate for the patient medical practitioner For the treatment of osteoradionecrosis medical practitioner Infant or child with liver disease or short gut syndrome Requires vitamin supplementation Patient has tried and failed the other available funded fat soluble vitamin A,D,E,K supplements (Vitabdeck) The other available funded fat soluble vitamin A,D,E,K supplement (Vitabdeck) is contraindicated or clinically inappropriate for patient medical practitioner Alpha tocopheryl <range>Alpha tocopheryl</range> Cystic fibrosis patient Patient has tried and failed the other available funded fat soluble vitamin A,D,E,K supplement (Vitabdeck) The other available funded fat soluble vitamin A,D,E,K supplement (Vitabdeck) is contraindicated or clinically inappropriate for the patient medical practitioner For the treatment of osteoradionecrosis medical practitioner Infant or child with liver disease or short gut syndrome Requires vitamin supplementation Patient has tried and failed the other available funded fat soluble vitamin A,D,E,K supplements (Vitabdeck) The other available funded fat soluble vitamin A,D,E,K supplement (Vitabdeck) is contraindicated or clinically inappropriate for patient medical practitioner Blood and Blood Forming Organs Antianaemics Hypoplastic and Haemolytic Epoetin beta [Erythropoietin beta]

Note: Epoetin beta is considered a Discretionary Variance Pharmaceutical for epoetin alfa.

<range>Epoetin beta [Erythropoietin beta]</range> Patient in chronic renal failure Haemoglobin is less than or equal to 100g/L Patient does not have diabetes mellitus Glomerular filtration rate is less than or equal to 30ml/min Patient has diabetes mellitus Glomerular filtration rate is less than or equal to 45ml/min Patient is on haemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis medical practitioner Patient has a confirmed diagnosis of myelodysplasia (MDS) Has had symptomatic anaemia with haemoglobin < 100g/L and is red cell transfusion-dependent Patient has very low, low or intermediate risk MDS based on the WHO classification-based prognostic scoring system for myelodysplastic syndrome (WPSS) Other causes of anaemia such as B12 and folate deficiency have been excluded Patient has a serum erythropoietin level of < 500 IU/L The minimum necessary dose of erythropoietin would be used and will not exceed 80,000 iu per week medical practitioner 12 The patient's transfusion requirement continues to be reduced with erythropoietin treatment Transformation to acute myeloid leukaemia has not occurred The minimum necessary dose of erythropoietin would be used and will not exceed 80,000 iu per week medical practitioner 2 Haematologist For use in patients where blood transfusion is not a viable treatment alternative *Note: Indications marked with * are unapproved indications medical practitioner Epoetin alfa [Erythropoietin alfa] <range>Epoetin alfa [Erythropoietin alfa]</range> Patient in chronic renal failure Haemoglobin is less than or equal to 100g/L Patient does not have diabetes mellitus Glomerular filtration rate is less than or equal to 30ml/min Patient has diabetes mellitus Glomerular filtration rate is less than or equal to 45ml/min Patient is on haemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis medical practitioner Patient has a confirmed diagnosis of myelodysplasia (MDS) Has had symptomatic anaemia with haemoglobin < 100g/L and is red cell transfusion-dependent Patient has very low, low or intermediate risk MDS based on the WHO classification-based prognostic scoring system for myelodysplastic syndrome (WPSS) Other causes of anaemia such as B12 and folate deficiency have been excluded Patient has a serum erythropoietin level of < 500 IU/L The minimum necessary dose of erythropoietin would be used and will not exceed 80,000 iu per week medical practitioner 2 The patient's transfusion requirement continues to be reduced with erythropoietin treatment Transformation to acute myeloid leukaemia has not occurred The minimum necessary dose of erythropoietin would be used and will not exceed 80,000 iu per week medical practitioner 12 For use in patients where blood transfusion is not a viable treatment alternative haematologist

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications

 Megaloblastic Folic acid Inj 5 mg per ml, 10 ml vial Any 0 Tab 0.8 mg Apo-Folic Acid 1000 21.84 Tab 5 mg Apo-Folic Acid 500 12.12 Oral liq 50 mcg per ml Biomed 25 24.00 Antifibrinolytics, Haemostatics and Local Sclerosants Antifibrinolytics, Haemostatics and Local Sclerosants Ferric subsulfate Gel 25.9% Any 0 Soln 500 ml Any 0 Polidocanol Inj 0.5%, 30 ml vial Any 0 Sodium tetradecyl sulphate Inj 3%, 2 ml ampoule Any 0 Thrombin Powder Any 0 Aprotinin <range>Aprotinin</range> Paediatric patient undergoing cardiopulmonary bypass procedure Adult patient undergoing cardiac surgical procedure where the significant risk of massive bleeding outweighs the potential adverse effects of the drug cardiac anaesthetist Eltrombopag <range>Eltrombopag</range> Patient has had a splenectomy Two immunosuppressive therapies have been trialled and failed after therapy of 3 months each (or 1 month for rituximab) Patient has a platelet count of 20,000 to 30,000 platelets per microlitre and has evidence of significant mucocutaneous bleeding Patient has a platelet count of less than or equal to 20,000 platelets per microlitre and has evidence of active bleeding Patient has a platelet count of less than or equal to 10,000 platelets per microlitre haematologist 6 The patient requires eltrombopag treatment as preparation for splenectomy haematologist 6 The patient has obtained a response (see Note) from treatment during the initial approval or subsequent renewal periods and further treatment is required haematologist 12

Response to treatment is defined as a platelet count of > 30,000 platelets per microlitre

 Patient has a significant and well-documented contraindication to splenectomy for clinical reasons Two immunosuppressive therapies have been trialled and failed after therapy of 3 months each (or 1 month for rituximab) Patient has immune thrombocytopenic purpura* with a platelet count of less than or equal to 20,000 platelets per microliter Patient has immune thrombocytopenic purpura* with a platelet count of 20,000 to 30,000 platelets per microlitre and significant mucocutaneous bleeding haematologist 3 The patient’s significant contraindication to splenectomy remains The patient has obtained a response from treatment during the initial approval period Patient has maintained a platelet count of at least 50,000 platelets per microlitre on treatment Further treatment with eltrombopag is required to maintain response haematologist 12 Two immunosuppressive therapies have been trialled and failed after therapy of at least 3 months duration Patient has severe aplastic anaemia with a platelet count of less than or equal to 20,000 platelets per microliter Patient has severe aplastic anaemia with a platelet count of 20,000 to 30,000 platelets per microlitre and significant mucocutaneous bleeding haematologist 3 The patient has obtained a response from treatment of at least 20,000 platelets per microlitre above baseline during the initial approval period Platelet transfusion independence for a minimum of 8 weeks during the initial approval period haematologist 12 Aluminium chloride <range>Aluminium chloride</range> For use as a haemostatis agent medical practitioner Tranexamic acid Tab 500 mg Cyklokapron 100 20.67 Inj 100 mg per ml, 5 ml ampoule Tranexamic-AFT 5 6.95 Inj 100 mg per ml, 10 ml ampoule Tranexamic-AFT 5 10.95 Anticoagulant Reversal Agents Idarucizumab <range>Idarucizumabj</range> For the reversal of the anticoagulant effects of dabigatran when required in situations of life-threatening or uncontrolled bleeding, or for emergency surgery or urgent procedures medical practitioner Blood Factors Moroctocog alfa [Recombinant factor VIII] <range>Moroctocog alfa [Recombinant factor VIII]</range> medical practitioner

Preferred Brand of recombinant factor VIII from 1 March 2016 until 28 February 2019. When used in the treatment of haemophilia, funded treatment is managed by the Haemophilia Treaters Group in conjunction with the National Haemophilia Management Group.

 Octocog alfa [Recombinant factor VIII] (Advate) <range>Octocog alfa [Recombinant factor VIII] (Advate)</range> medical practitioner

Rare Clinical Circumstances Brand of recombinant factor VIII from 1 March 2016 until 28 February 2019. When used in the treatment of haemophilia, access to funded treatment by application to the Haemophilia Treatments Panel. Application details may be obtained from PHARMAC.s website http://www.pharmac.govt.nz or:

The Co-ordinator, Haemophilia Treatments Panel

Phone: 0800 023 588 Option 2

PHARMAC PO Box 10 254

Facsimile: (04) 974 4881

Wellington

Email: haemophilia@pharmac.govt.nz
Octocog alfa [Recombinant factor VIII] (Kogenate FS) <range>Octocog alfa [Recombinant factor VIII] (Kogenate FS)</range> medical practitioner

Second Brand of recombinant factor VIII from 1 March 2016 until 28 February 2019. When used in the treatment of haemophilia, access to funded treatment by application to the Haemophilia Treatments Panel. Application details may be obtained from PHARMAC.s website http://www.pharmac.govt.nz or:

The Co-ordinator, Haemophilia Treatments Panel

Phone: 0800 023 588 Option 2

PHARMAC PO Box 10 254

Facsimile: (04) 974 4881

Wellington

Email: haemophilia@pharmac.govt.nz
Nonacog gamma, [Recombinant factor IX] <range>Eptacog alfa, Moroctocog alfa, Nonacog alfa, Factor eight inhibitors bypassing agent</range> When used in the treatment of haemophilia, treatment is managed by the Haemophilia Treaters Group in conjunction with the National Haemophilia Management Group medical practitioner Nonacog alfa [Recombinant factor IX] <range>Eptacog alfa, Moroctocog alfa, Nonacog alfa, Factor eight inhibitors bypassing agent</range> When used in the treatment of haemophilia, access to funded treatment is managed by the Haemophilia Treaters Group in conjunction with the National Haemophilia Management Group medical practitioner Factor eight inhibitor bypassing fraction <range>Eptacog alfa, Moroctocog alfa, Nonacog alfa, Factor eight inhibitors bypassing agent</range> When used in the treatment of haemophilia, access to funded treatment is managed by the Haemophilia Treaters Group in conjunction with the National Haemophilia Management Group medical practitioner Eptacog alfa [Recombinant factor VIIa] <range>Eptacog alfa, Moroctocog alfa, Nonacog alfa, Factor eight inhibitors bypassing agent</range> When used in the treatment of haemophilia, access to funded treatment is managed by the Haemophilia Treaters Group in conjunction with the National Haemophilia Management Group medical practitioner Vitamin K Phytomenadione Inj 2 mg in 0.2 ml ampoule Konakion MM 5 8.00 Inj 10 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Konakion MM 5 9.21 Antithrombotics Anticoagulants Bivalirudin <range>Bivalirudin</range> For use in heparin-induced thrombocytopaenia, heparin resistance or heparin intolerance For use in patients undergoing endovascular procedures medical practitioner Danaparoid <range>Danaparoid</range> For use in heparin-induced thrombocytopaenia, heparin resistance or heparin intolerance medical practitioner Defibrotide <range>Defibrotide</range> Patient has moderate or severe sinusoidal obstruction syndrome as a result of chemotherapy or regimen-related toxicities haematologist Dextrose with sodium citrate and citric acid [Acid Citrate Dextrose A] Inj 24.5 mg with sodium citrate 22 mg and citric acid 7.3 mg per ml, 100 ml bag Any 0 Fondaparinux sodium <range>Fondaparinux sodium</range> For use in heparin-induced thrombocytopaenia, heparin resistance or heparin intolerance medical practitioner Phenindione Tab 10 mg Any 0 Tab 25 mg Any 0 Tab 50 mg Any 0 Protamine sulphate Inj 10 mg per ml, 5 ml ampoule Any 0 Sodium citrate with sodium chloride and potassium chloride Inj 4.2 mg with sodium chloride 5.7 mg and potassium chloride 74.6 mcg per ml, 5,000 ml bag Any 0 Citrate sodium Inj 4% (200 mg per 5 ml), 5 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 46.7% (2.36 g per 5 ml), 5 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 46.7% (1.4 g per 3 ml), 3 ml syringe Any 0 1 Warfarin sodium Tab 1 mg Marevan 100 6.86 Tab 2 mg Any 0 Tab 3 mg Marevan 100 9.70 Tab 5 mg Marevan 100 11.75 Heparinised saline Inj 100 iu per ml, 2 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 100 iu per ml, 5 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 10 iu per ml, 5 ml ampoule Pfizer 50 56.94 Heparin sodium Inj 1,000 iu per ml, 35 ml vial Any 0 Inj 100 iu per ml, 250 ml bag Any 0 Inj 5,000 iu in 0.2 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 5,000 iu per ml, 1 ml ampoule Hospira 5 28.40 Inj 1,000 iu per ml, 1 ml ampoule Hospira 50 98.53 Inj 1,000 iu per ml, 5 ml ampoule Pfizer 50 58.57 Inj 5,000 iu per ml, 5 ml ampoule Pfizer 50 203.68 Dalteparin Inj 5,000 iu in 0.2 ml syringe Fragmin 10 39.94 Inj 2,500 iu in 0.2 ml syringe Fragmin 10 19.97 Inj 7,500 iu in 0.75 ml syringe Fragmin 10 60.03 Inj 10,000 iu in 1 ml syringe Fragmin 10 77.55 Inj 12,500 iu in 0.5 ml syringe Fragmin 10 99.96 Inj 15,000 iu in 0.6 ml syringe Fragmin 10 120.05 Inj 18,000 iu in 0.72 ml syringe Fragmin 10 158.47 Enoxaparin sodium Inj 20 mg in 0.2 ml syringe Clexane 10 27.93 Inj 40 mg in 0.4 ml syringe Clexane 10 37.27 Inj 60 mg in 0.6 ml syringe Clexane 10 56.18 Inj 80 mg in 0.8 ml syringe Clexane 10 74.90 Inj 100 mg in 1 ml syringe Clexane 10 93.80 Inj 120 mg in 0.8 ml syringe Clexane 10 116.55 Inj 150 mg in 1 ml syringe Clexane 10 133.20 Inj 40 mg in 0.4 ml ampoule Any 0 Rivaroxaban Tab 10 mg Xarelto 15 41.55 30 83.10 Tab 15 mg Xarelto 28 77.56 Tab 20 mg Xarelto 28 77.56 Dabigatran Cap 75 mg Pradaxa 60 76.36 Cap 110 mg Pradaxa 60 76.36 Cap 150 mg Pradaxa 60 76.36 Antiplatelets Aspirin Suppos 300 mg Any 0 Tab 100 mg Ethics Aspirin EC 90 1.60 990 12.50 Ticlopidine Tab 250 mg Any 0 Dipyridamole Inj 5 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Any 0 Tab 25 mg Any 0 Tab long-acting 150 mg Pytazen SR 60 11.52 Clopidogrel Tab 75 mg Arrow - Clopid 84 5.44 Eptifibatide <range>Eptifibatide</range> For use in patients with acute coronary syndromes undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention For use in patients with definite or strongly suspected intra-coronary thrombus on coronary angiography medical practitioner Prasugrel <range>Prasugrel</range> Patient has undergone coronary angioplasty in the previous 4 weeks and is clopidogrel-allergic medical practitioner 6 Patient has had a drug-eluting cardiac stent inserted in the previous 4 weeks and is clopidogrel-allergic medical practitioner 12 Patient has experienced cardiac stent thrombosis whilst on clopidogrel medical practitioner For short term use while in hospital following ST-elevated myocardial infarction medical practitioner 1

Clopidogrel allergy is defined as a history of anaphylaxis, urticaria, generalised rash or asthma (in non-asthmatic patients) developing soon after clopidogrel is started and is considered unlikely to be caused by any other treatment

 Ticagrelor <range>Ticagrelor</range> Restricted to treatment of acute coronary syndromes specifically for patients who have recently (within the last 60 days) been diagnosed with an ST-elevation or a non-ST-elevation acute coronary syndrome, and in whom fibrinolytic therapy has not been given in the last 24 hours and is not planned medical practitioner Fibrinolytic Agents Alteplase Inj 10 mg vial Any 0 Inj 50 mg vial Any 0 Inj 2 mg vial Any 0 Tenecteplase Inj 50 mg vial Any 0 Urokinase Inj 10,000 iu vial Any 0 Inj 100,000 iu vial Any 0 Inj 50,000 iu vial Any 0 Inj 500,000 iu vial Any 0 Colony-Stimulating Factors Drugs Used to Mobilise Stem Cells Plerixafor <range>Plerixafor</range> Patient is to undergo stem cell transplantation Patient has not had a previous unsuccessful mobilisation attempt with plerixafor Patient is undergoing G-CSF mobilisation Has a suboptimal peripheral blood CD34 count of less than or equal to 10 × 106/L on day 5 after 4 days of G-CSF treatment Efforts to collect > 1 × 106 CD34 cells/kg have failed after one apheresis procedure Patient is undergoing chemotherapy and G-CSF mobilisation Has rising white blood cell counts of > 5 × 109/L Has a suboptimal peripheral blood CD34 count of less than or equal to 10 × 106/L Efforts to collect > 1 × 106 CD34 cells/kg have failed after one apheresis procedure The peripheral blood CD34 cell counts are decreasing before the target has been received A previous mobilisation attempt with G-CSF or G-CSF plus chemotherapy has failed haematologist 3 Granulocyte Colony-Stimulating Factors Pegfilgrastim <range>Pegfilgrastim</range> For prevention of neutropenia in patients undergoing high risk chemotherapy for cancer (febrile neutropenia risk greater than or equal to 20%*) medical practitioner

*Febrile neutropenia risk greater than or equal to 20% after taking into account other risk factors as defined by the European Organisation for Research and Treatment of Cancer (EORTC) guidelines

 Filgrastim <range>Filgrastim</range> No patient criteria haematologist oncologist Fluids and Electrolytes Intravenous Administration Calcium chloride Inj 100 mg per ml, 10 ml vial Any 0 Compound electrolytes Inj sodium 140 mmol/l, potassium 5 mmol/l, magnesium 1.5 mmol/l, chloride 98 mmol/l, acetate 27 mmol/l, gluconate 23 mmol/l, 500 ml bag Plasma-Lyte 148 18 44.10 Inj sodium 140 mmol/l, potassium 5 mmol/l, magnesium 1.5 mmol/l, chloride 98 mmol/l, acetate 27 mmol/l, gluconate 23 mmol/l, 1,000 ml bag Plasma-Lyte 148 12 27.24 Compound electrolytes with glucose [Dextrose] Inj sodium 140 mmol/l, 5 mmol/l potassium, 1.5 mmol/l magnesium, 98 mmol/l chloride, 27 mmol/l acetate and 23 mmol/l gluconate, glucose 23 mmol/l (5%), 1,000 ml bag Plasma-Lyte 148 & 5% Glucose 12 211.92 Compound sodium lactate [Hartmann's solution] Inj sodium 131 mmol/l with potassium 5 mmol/l, calcium 2 mmol/l, bicarbonate 29 mmol/l, chloride 111 mmol/l, 500 ml bag Baxter 18 23.40 Inj sodium 131 mmol/l with potassium 5 mmol/l, calcium 2 mmol/l, bicarbonate 29 mmol/l, chloride 111 mmol/l, 1,000 ml bag Baxter 12 15.72 Potassium dihydrogen phosphate Inj 1 mmol per ml, 10 ml ampoule Hospira 10 151.80 Ringer's solution Inj sodium 147 mmol/l with potassium 4 mmol/l, calcium 2.2 mmol/l, chloride 156 mmol/l, 1,000 ml bag Any 0 Sodium acetate Inj 4 mmol per ml, 20 ml ampoule Any 0 Potassium chloride Inj 225 mg (3 mmol) per ml, 20 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 75 mg (1 mmol) per ml, 10 ml ampoule Any 0 Sodium chloride Inj 0.9%, 10 ml ampoule Pfizer 50 6.63 Inj 0.9%, 5 ml ampoule InterPharma 50 7.00 Inj 1.8%, 500 ml bottle Any 0 Inj 23.4% (4 mmol/ml), 20 ml ampoule Biomed 5 33.00 Inj 0.9%, 20 ml ampoule Multichem 20 5.00 InterPharma 30 7.50 Inj 0.9%, 3 ml syringe, non-sterile pack <range>Sodium chloride – Inj</range> For use in flushing of in-situ vascular access devices only medical practitioner Inj 0.9%, 5 ml syringe, non-sterile pack <range>Sodium chloride – Inj</range> For use in flushing of in-situ vascular access devices only medical practitioner Inj 0.9%, 10 ml syringe, non-sterile pack <range>Sodium chloride – Inj</range> For use in flushing of in-situ vascular access devices only medical practitioner Inj 0.45%, 500 ml bag Baxter 18 71.28 Inj 0.9%, 50 ml bag Baxter 60 109.80 Inj 0.9%, 100 ml bag Baxter 48 78.24 Inj 0.9%, 250 ml bag Baxter 24 44.64 Inj 0.9%, 500 ml bag Baxter 18 22.14 Inj 0.9%, 1,000 ml bag Baxter 12 15.12 Inj 3%, 1,000 ml bag Baxter 12 91.20 Sodium bicarbonate Inj 8.4%, 10 ml vial Any 0 Inj 8.4%, 100 ml vial Biomed 1 20.50 Inj 8.4%, 50 ml vial Biomed 1 19.95 Calcium gluconate Inj 10%, 10 ml ampoule Hospira 10 34.24 Glucose [Dextrose] Inj 50%, 10 ml ampoule Biomed 5 29.50 Inj 50%, 90 ml bottle Biomed 1 14.50 Inj 5%, 50 ml bag Baxter Glucose 5% 60 143.40 Inj 10%, 500 ml bag Baxter Glucose 10% 18 109.98 Inj 10%, 1,000 ml bag Baxter Glucose 10% 12 111.96 Inj 50%, 500 ml bag Baxter Glucose 50% 18 337.32 Inj 5%, 100 ml bag Fresenius Kabi 50 77.50 Inj 5%, 250 ml bag Fresenius Kabi 30 52.50 Inj 5%, 500 ml bag Fresenius Kabi 20 24.00 Inj 5%, 1,000 ml bag Fresenius Kabi 10 16.80 Glucose with potassium chloride Inj 10% glucose with 20 mmol/l potassium chloride, 500 ml bag Any 0 Glucose with potassium chloride and sodium chloride Inj 10% glucose with potassium chloride 10 mmol/l and sodium chloride 15 mmol/l, 500 ml bag Any 0 Inj 2.5% glucose with potassium chloride 20 mmol/l and sodium chloride 0.45%, 3,000 ml bag Any 0 Inj 4% glucose with potassium chloride 20 mmol/l and sodium chloride 0.18%, 1,000 ml bag Baxter 12 203.40 Inj 5% glucose with potassium chloride 20 mmol/l and sodium chloride 0.45%, 1,000 ml bag Baxter 12 159.96 Inj 5% glucose with potassium chloride 20 mmol/l and sodium chloride 0.9%, 1,000 ml bag Baxter 12 282.72 Potassium chloride with sodium chloride Inj 10 mmol potassium chloride with 0.29% sodium chloride, 100 ml bag Baxter 48 476.64 Inj 40 mmol potassium chloride with 0.9% sodium chloride, 100 ml bag Baxter 48 772.32 Inj 20 mmol potassium chloride with 0.9% sodium chloride, 1,000 ml bag Baxter 12 163.08 Inj 40 mmol potassium chloride with 0.9% sodium chloride, 1,000 ml bag Baxter 12 253.32 Glucose with sodium chloride Inj 4% glucose and sodium chloride 0.18%, 1,000 ml bag Baxter 12 163.32 Inj 5% glucose and sodium chloride 0.9%, 1,000 ml bag Baxter 12 173.40 Inj 5% glucose and sodium chloride 0.45%, 1,000 ml bag Baxter 12 163.20 Inj glucose 2.5% with sodium chloride 0.45%, 500 ml bag Any 0 Water Inj 250 ml bag Any 0 Inj 500 ml bag Any 0 Inj 5 ml ampoule InterPharma 50 7.00 Inj 10 ml ampoule Pfizer 50 6.63 Inj 20 ml ampoule Multichem 20 5.00 InterPharma 30 7.50 Inj, 1,000 ml bag Baxter 12 19.08 Sodium dihydrogen phosphate [Sodium acid phosphate] Inj 1 mmol per ml, 20 ml ampoule Biomed 5 48.70 Oral Administration Compound electrolytes Powder for oral soln Enerlyte 10 2.30 Compound electrolytes with glucose [Dextrose] Soln with electrolytes (2 x 500 ml) Pedialyte - Bubblegum 1000 6.55 Phosphorus Tab eff 500 mg (16 mmol) Any 0 Sodium polystyrene sulphonate Powder Resonium A 454 84.65 Potassium chloride Oral liq 2 mmol per ml Any 0 Tab eff 548 mg (14 mmol) with chloride 285 mg (8 mmol) Any 0 Tab long-acting 600 mg (8 mmol) Span-K 200 8.90 Sodium chloride Oral liq 2 mmol/ml Any 0 Tab 600 mg Any 0 Sodium bicarbonate Cap 840 mg Sodibic 100 8.52 100 8.52 Calcium polystyrene sulphonate Powder Calcium Resonium 300 169.85 Plasma Volume Expanders Gelatine, succinylated Inj 4%, 500 ml bag Gelofusine 10 120.00 Cardiovascular System Agents Affecting the Renin-Angiotensin System ACE Inhibitors Trandolapril

For continuation only

Cap 1 mg Any 0 Cap 2 mg Any 0 Cilazapril Tab 0.5 mg Zapril 90 2.00 Tab 2.5 mg Apo-Cilazapril 200 7.20 Tab 5 mg Apo-Cilazapril 200 12.00 Quinapril Tab 5 mg Arrow-Quinapril 5 90 6.01 Tab 10 mg Arrow-Quinapril 10 90 3.16 Tab 20 mg Arrow-Quinapril 20 90 4.89 Captopril Oral liq 5 mg per ml <range>Captopril - Oral liq 5 mg per ml</range> For use in children under 12 years of age For use in tube-fed patients For management of rebound transient hypertension following cardiac surgery medical practitioner Lisinopril Tab 5 mg Ethics Lisinopril 90 2.07 Tab 10 mg Ethics Lisinopril 90 2.36 Tab 20 mg Ethics Lisinopril 90 3.17 Enalapril maleate Tab 5 mg Ethics Enalapril 100 0.96 Tab 10 mg Ethics Enalapril 100 1.24 Tab 20 mg Ethics Enalapril 100 1.78 Perindopril Tab 2 mg Apo-Perindopril 30 3.75 Tab 4 mg Apo-Perindopril 30 4.80 ACE Inhibitors with Diuretics Enalapril maleate with hydrochlorothiazide

For continuation only

Tab 20 mg with hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg Any 0 Cilazapril with hydrochlorothiazide Tab 5 mg with hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg Apo-Cilazapril/ Hydrochlorothiazide 100 10.18 Quinapril with hydrochlorothiazide Tab 10 mg with hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg Accuretic 10 30 3.83 Tab 20 mg with hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg Accuretic 20 30 4.92 Angiotensin II Antagonists Candesartan cilexetil Tab 4 mg Candestar 90 1.90 Tab 8 mg Candestar 90 2.28 Tab 16 mg Candestar 90 3.67 Tab 32 mg Candestar 90 6.39 Losartan potassium Tab 12.5 mg Losartan Actavis 84 1.39 Tab 25 mg Losartan Actavis 84 1.63 Tab 50 mg Losartan Actavis 84 2.00 Tab 100 mg Losartan Actavis 84 2.31 Angiotensin II Antagonists with Diuretics Losartan potassium with hydrochlorothiazide Tab 50 mg with hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg Arrow-Losartan & Hydrochlorothiazide 30 15.25 Angiotensin II Antagonists with Neprilysin Inhibitors Sacubitril with valsartan <range>Sacubitril with valsartan</range> Patient has heart failure Patient is in NYHA/WHO functional class II Patient is in NYHA/WHO functional class III Patient is in NYHA/WHO functional class IV Patient has a documented left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of less than or equal to 35% Patient is receiving concomitant optimal standard chronic heart failure treatments medical practitioner 12 The treatment remains appropriate and the patient is benefiting from treatment medical practitioner 12

Due to the angiotensin II receptor blocking activity of sacubitril with valsartan it should not be co-administered with an ACE inhibitor or another ARB.

 Alpha-Adrenoceptor Blockers Alpha-Adrenoceptor Blockers Phenoxybenzamine hydrochloride Cap 10 mg Any 0 Inj 50 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Any 0 Terazosin Tab 1 mg Actavis 28 0.59 Tab 2 mg Apo-Terazosin 500 7.50 Tab 5 mg Apo-Terazosin 500 10.90 Phentolamine mesylate Inj 10 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 5 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Any 0 Doxazosin Tab 2 mg Apo-Doxazosin 500 6.75 Tab 4 mg Apo-Doxazosin 500 9.09 Prazosin Tab 1 mg Apo-Prazosin 100 5.53 Tab 2 mg Apo-Prazosin 100 7.00 Tab 5 mg Apo-Prazosin 100 11.70 Antiarrhythmics Antiarrhythmics Adenosine Inj 3 mg per ml, 10 ml vial <range>Adenosine - Inj 3 mg per ml, 10 ml vial</range> For use in cardiac catheterisation, electrophysiology and MRI medical practitioner Inj 3 mg per ml, 2 ml vial Any 0 Ajmaline <range>Ajmaline</range> No patient criteria cardiologist Amiodarone hydrochloride Inj 50 mg per ml, 3 ml ampoule Lodi 5 9.98 Tab 100 mg Cordarone-X 30 4.66 Tab 200 mg Cordarone-X 30 7.63 Digoxin Inj 250 mcg per ml, 2 ml vial Any 0 Oral liq 50 mcg per ml Any 0 Tab 250 mcg Lanoxin 240 14.52 Tab 62.5 mcg Lanoxin PG 240 6.67 Disopyramide phosphate Cap 100 mg Any 0 Propafenone hydrochloride Tab 150 mg Any 0 Ivabradine <range>Ivabradine</range> Patient is indicated for computed tomography coronary angiography Patient has a heart rate of greater than 70 beats per minute while taking a maximally tolerated dose of beta blocker Patient is unable to tolerate beta blockers medical practitioner Atropine sulphate Inj 600 mcg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Martindale 10 12.07 Flecainide acetate Tab 50 mg Tambocor 60 38.95 Cap long-acting 100 mg Tambocor CR 30 38.95 Cap long-acting 200 mg Tambocor CR 30 68.78 Inj 10 mg per ml, 15 ml ampoule Tambocor 5 52.45 Mexiletine hydrochloride Cap 150 mg Mexiletine Hydrochloride USP 100 162.00 Cap 250 mg Mexiletine Hydrochloride USP 100 202.00 Antihypotensives Antihypotensives Midodrine <range>Midodrine</range> Patient has disabling orthostatic hypotension not due to drugs medical practitioner Beta-Adrenoceptor Blockers Beta-Adrenoceptor Blockers Esmolol hydrochloride Inj 10 mg per ml, 10 ml vial Any 0 Atenolol Oral liq 5 mg per ml Atenolol-AFT 300 21.25 Tab 50 mg Mylan Atenolol 500 4.26 Tab 100 mg Mylan Atenolol 500 7.30 Sotalol Tab 80 mg Mylan 500 39.53 Tab 160 mg Mylan 100 12.48 Labetalol Inj 5 mg per ml, 20 ml ampoule Any 0 Tab 50 mg Hybloc 100 8.99 Tab 100 mg Hybloc 100 11.36 Tab 200 mg Hybloc 100 29.74 Tab 400 mg Any 0 Carvedilol Tab 6.25 mg Carvedilol Sandoz 60 2.24 Tab 12.5 mg Carvedilol Sandoz 60 2.30 Tab 25 mg Carvedilol Sandoz 60 2.95 Metoprolol tartrate Tab long-acting 200 mg Slow-Lopresor 28 23.40 Inj 1 mg per ml, 5 ml vial Lopresor 5 24.00 Metroprolol IV Mylan 5 29.50 Tab 50 mg Apo-Metoprolol 100 5.66 Tab 100 mg Apo-Metoprolol 60 7.55 Celiprolol Tab 200 mg Celol 180 21.40 Nadolol Tab 40 mg Apo-Nadolol 100 16.69 Tab 80 mg Apo-Nadolol 100 26.43 Propranolol Inj 1 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Any 0 Oral liq 4 mg per ml Any 0 Cap long-acting 160 mg Cardinol LA 100 18.17 Tab 10 mg Apo-Propranolol 100 4.64 Tab 40 mg Apo-Propranolol 100 5.72 Metoprolol succinate Tab long-acting 23.75 mg Betaloc CR 30 1.03 Tab long-acting 47.5 mg Betaloc CR 30 1.25 Tab long-acting 95 mg Betaloc CR 30 1.99 Tab long-acting 190 mg Betaloc CR 30 3.00 Timolol maleate Tab 10 mg Any 0 Pindolol Tab 5 mg Apo-Pindolol 100 13.22 Tab 10 mg Apo-Pindolol 100 23.12 Tab 15 mg Apo-Pindolol 100 33.31 Bisoprolol fumarate Tab 5 mg Bosvate 30 1.72 90 5.15 Tab 2.5 mg Bosvate 90 3.53 Tab 10 mg Bosvate 90 9.40 Calcium Channel Blockers Dihydropyridine Calcium Channel Blockers Isradipine Tab 2.5 mg Any 0 Cap 2.5 mg Any 0 Nimodipine Inj 200 mcg per ml, 50 ml vial Any 0 Tab 30 mg Any 0 Nicardipine hydrochloride <range>Nicardipine hydrochloride</range> Patient is a Paediatric Patient Patient has hypertension requiring urgent treatment with an intravenous agent Patient has excessive ventricular afterload Patient is awaiting or undergoing cardiac surgery using cardiopulmonary bypass anaesthetist intensivist paediatric cardiologist Nifedipine Cap 5 mg Any 0 Tab long-acting 10 mg Adalat 10 60 10.63 Tab long-acting 20 mg Nyefax Retard 100 9.59 Tab long-acting 30 mg Adalat Oros 30 3.14 Tab long-acting 60 mg Adalat Oros 30 5.67 Felodipine Tab long-acting 5 mg Felo 5 ER 90 3.93 Plendil ER 30 1.55 Tab long-acting 10 mg Felo 10 ER 90 4.32 Plendil ER 30 2.30 Tab long-acting 2.5 mg Plendil ER 30 1.45 Amlodipine Tab 5 mg Apo-Amlodipine 250 3.33 Tab 10 mg Apo-Amlodipine 250 4.40 Tab 2.5 mg Apo-Amlodipine 100 1.72 Other Calcium Channel Blockers Verapamil hydrochloride Tab 40 mg Isoptin 100 7.01 100 7.01 Tab 80 mg Isoptin 100 11.74 100 11.74 Tab long-acting 240 mg Verpamil SR 250 25.00 Inj 2.5 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Isoptin 5 25.00 5 25.00 Tab long-acting 120 mg Verpamil SR 250 15.20 Perhexiline maleate Tab 100 mg Pexsig 100 62.90 Diltiazem hydrochloride Inj 5 mg per ml, 5 ml vial Any 0 Tab 30 mg Dilzem 100 4.60 Cap long-acting 120 mg Apo-Diltiazem CD 500 33.42 Cap long-acting 180 mg Apo-Diltiazem CD 500 50.05 Cap long-acting 240 mg Apo-Diltiazem CD 500 66.76 Tab 60 mg Dilzem 100 8.50 Centrally-Acting Agents Centrally-Acting Agents Clonidine hydrochloride Inj 150 mcg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Medsurge 10 25.96 Tab 150 mcg Catapres 100 34.32 Tab 25 mcg Clonidine BNM 112 8.75 Methyldopa Tab 250 mg Methyldopa Mylan 100 15.10 Clonidine Patch 2.5 mg, 100 mcg per day Mylan 4 7.40 Patch 5 mg, 200 mcg per day Mylan 4 10.04 Patch 7.5 mg, 300 mcg per day Mylan 4 12.34 Diuretics Loop Diuretics Furosemide [Frusemide] Inj 10 mg per ml, 25 ml ampoule Any 0 Oral liq 10 mg per ml Any 0 Inj 10 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Frusemide-Claris 5 1.20 Tab 40 mg Diurin 40 1000 8.00 Tab 500 mg Urex Forte 50 25.00 Bumetanide Inj 500 mcg per ml, 4 ml vial Any 0 Tab 1 mg Burinex 100 16.36 Osmotic Diuretics Mannitol Inj 20%, 500 ml bag Baxter 18 1096.92 Inj 10%, 1,000 ml bag Baxter 12 747.24 Potassium Sparing Combination Diuretics Amiloride hydrochloride with furosemide Tab 5 mg with furosemide 40 mg Any 0 Amiloride hydrochloride with hydrochlorothiazide Tab 5 mg with hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg Any 0 Potassium Sparing Diuretics Eplerenone <range>Eplerenone</range> Patient has heart failure with ejection fraction less than 40% Patient is intolerant to optimal dosing of spironolactone Patient has experienced a clinically significant adverse effect while on optimal dosing of spironolactone medical practitioner Spironolactone Tab 25 mg Spiractin 100 4.38 Tab 100 mg Spiractin 100 11.80 Oral liq 5 mg per ml Biomed 25 30.00 Amiloride hydrochloride Tab 5 mg Apo-Amiloride 100 15.00 Oral liq 1 mg per ml Biomed 25 30.00 Thiazide and Related Diuretics Metolazone <range>Metolazone</range> Patient has refractory heart failure and is intolerant or has not responded to loop diuretics and/or loop-thiazide combination therapy Patient has severe refractory nephrotic oedema unresponsive to high dose loop diuretics and concentrated albumin infusions Paediatric patient has oedema secondary to nephrotic syndrome that has not responded to loop diuretics medical practitioner Indapamide Tab 2.5 mg Dapa-Tabs 90 2.60 Chlorothiazide Oral liq 50 mg per ml Biomed 25 26.00 Chlortalidone [Chlorthalidone] Tab 25 mg Hygroton 50 8.00 Bendroflumethiazide [Bendrofluazide] Tab 2.5 mg Arrow-Bendrofluazide 500 12.50 Tab 5 mg Arrow-Bendrofluazide 500 20.42 Lipid-Modifying Agents Fibrates Bezafibrate Tab 200 mg Bezalip 90 19.01 Tab long-acting 400 mg Bezalip Retard 30 12.89 Gemfibrozil Tab 600 mg Lipazil 60 19.56 HMG CoA Reductase Inhibitors (Statins) Simvastatin Tab 10 mg Simvastatin Mylan 90 0.95 Tab 20 mg Simvastatin Mylan 90 1.52 Tab 40 mg Simvastatin Mylan 90 2.63 Tab 80 mg Simvastatin Mylan 90 6.00 Atorvastatin Tab 10 mg Lorstat 500 6.96 Tab 20 mg Lorstat 500 9.99 Tab 40 mg Lorstat 500 15.93 Tab 80 mg Lorstat 500 27.19 Pravastatin Tab 10 mg Any 0 Tab 20 mg Apo-Pravastatin 100 4.72 Tab 40 mg Apo-Pravastatin 100 8.06 Resins Cholestyramine Powder for oral liq 4 g Any 0 Colestipol hydrochloride Grans for oral liq 5 g Any 0 Selective Cholesterol Absorption Inhibitors Ezetimibe <range>Ezetimibe</range> Patient has a calculated absolute risk of cardiovascular disease of at least 15% over 5 years Patient's LDL cholesterol is 2.0 mmol/litre or greater The patient has rhabdomyolysis (defined as muscle aches and creatine kinase more than 10 × normal) when treated with one statin The patient is intolerant to both simvastatin and atorvastatin The patient has not reduced their LDL cholesterol to less than 2.0 mmol/litre with the use of the maximal tolerated dose of atorvastatin medical practitioner Ezetimibe with simvastatin <range>Ezetimibe with simvastatin</range> Patient has a calculated absolute risk of cardiovascular disease of at least 15% over 5 years Patient's LDL cholesterol is 2.0 mmol/litre or greater The patient has not reduced their LDL cholesterol to less than 2.0 mmol/litre with the use of the maximal tolerated dose of atorvastatin medical practitioner Other Lipid-Modifying Agents Acipimox Cap 250 mg Any 0 Nicotinic acid Tab 50 mg Apo-Nicotinic Acid 100 4.12 Tab 500 mg Apo-Nicotinic Acid 100 17.89 Nitrates Nitrates Glyceryl trinitrate Oral spray, 400 mcg per dose Glytrin 200 4.45 250 4.45 Patch 50 mg, 10 mg per day Nitroderm TTS 10 30 30 18.62 Patch 25 mg, 5 mg per day Nitroderm TTS 5 30 30 15.73 Inj 5 mg per ml, 10 ml ampoule Hospira 5 5 100.00 Inj 1 mg per ml, 5 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 1 mg per ml, 50 ml vial Any 0 Tab 600 mcg Lycinate 100 8.00 Oral pump spray, 400 mcg per dose Nitrolingual Pump Spray 250 4.45 Inj 1 mg per ml, 10 ml ampoule Any 0 Isosorbide mononitrate Tab 20 mg Ismo-20 100 18.80 Tab long-acting 60 mg Duride 90 8.29 Tab long-acting 40 mg Ismo 40 Retard 30 7.50 Other Cardiac Agents Other Cardiac Agents Levosimendan <range>Levosimendan</range> For use as a bridge to heart transplant, in patients who have been accepted for transplant For the treatment of heart failure following heart transplant medical practitioner For the treatment of severe acute decompensated heart failure that is non-responsive to dobutamine cardiologist intensivist Sympathomimetics Sympathomimetics Dobutamine hydrochloride Inj 12.5 mg per ml, 20 ml ampoule Dobutamine-Claris 5 24.45 Dobutamine-hameln 5 61.13 Isoprenaline [Isoproterenol] Inj 200 mcg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 200 mcg per ml, 5 ml ampoule Any 0 Metaraminol Inj 0.5 mg per ml, 20 ml syringe Any 0 Inj 1 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 1 mg per ml, 10 ml syringe Any 0 Inj 10 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Any 0 Noradrenaline Inj 0.06 mg per ml, 100 ml bag Any 0 Inj 0.06 mg per ml, 50 ml syringe Any 0 Inj 0.1 mg per ml, 100 ml bag Any 0 Inj 0.12 mg per ml, 100 ml bag Any 0 Inj 0.12 mg per ml, 50 ml syringe Any 0 Inj 0.16 mg per ml, 50 ml syringe Any 0 Inj 1 mg per ml, 100 ml bag Any 0 Inj 1 mg per ml, 4 ml ampoule Noradrenaline BNM 10 125.00 Phenylephrine hydrochloride Inj 10 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Neosynephrine HCL 25 115.50 Adrenaline Inj 1 in 1,000, 30 ml vial Any 0 Inj 1 in 10,000, 10 ml syringe Any 0 Inj 1 in 1,000, 1 ml ampoule Hospira 50 100.00 5 5.25 Aspen Adrenaline 5 4.98 Inj 1 in 10,000, 10 ml ampoule Hospira 5 27.00 Aspen Adrenaline 10 49.00 Dopamine hydrochloride Inj 40 mg per ml, 5 ml ampoule Max Health Ltd 10 29.73 Ephedrine Inj 3 mg per ml, 10 ml syringe Any 0 Inj 30 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Max Health 10 36.04 Vasodilators Vasodilators Amyl nitrite Liq 98% in 3 ml capsule Any 0 Milrinone Inj 1 mg per ml, 10 ml ampoule Primacor 10 99.00 Pentoxifylline [Oxpentifylline] Tab 400 mg Any 0 Papaverine hydrochloride Inj 30 mg per ml, 1 ml vial Any 0 Inj 12 mg per ml, 10 ml ampoule Hospira 5 217.90 Hydralazine hydrochloride Tab 25 mg <range>Hydralazine hydrochloride - Tab 25 mg</range> For the treatment of refractory hypertension For the treatment of heart failure, in combination with a nitrate, in patients who are intolerant or have not responded to ACE inhibitors and/or angiotensin receptor blockers medical practitioner Inj 20 mg ampoule Apresoline 5 1 25.90 5 25.90 Alprostadil hydrochloride Inj 500 mcg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Prostin VR 5 1765.50 Sodium nitroprusside Inj 50 mg vial Any 0 Nicorandil Tab 10 mg Ikorel 60 27.95 Tab 20 mg Ikorel 60 33.28 Minoxidil Tab 10 mg Loniten 100 70.00 Diazoxide Inj 15 mg per ml, 20 ml ampoule Any 0 Endothelin Receptor Antagonists Bosentan <range>Bosentan</range> Patient has pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) PAH is in Group 1, 4 or 5 of the WHO (Venice) clinical classifications PAH is at NYHA/WHO functional class II, III, or IV Bosentan is to be used as PAH monotherapy Patient is intolerant or contraindicated to sildenafil Patient is a child with idiopathic PAH or PAH secondary to congenital heart disease Bosentan is to be used as PAH dual therapy Patient has tried a PAH monotherapy for at least three months and failed to respond Patient deteriorated while on a PAH monotherapy Bosentan is to be used as PAH triple therapy Patient is on the lung transplant list Patient is presenting acutely with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) in New York Heart Association/World Health Organization (NYHA/WHO) Functional Class IV Patient is deteriorating rapidly to NYHA/WHO Functional Class IV who may be lung transplant recipients in the future, if their disease is stabilised Patient has PAH associated with the scleroderma spectrum of diseases (APAHSSD) who have no major morbidities and are deteriorating despite combination therapy In-hospital stabilisation in emergency situations medical practitioner 6 Bosentan is to be used as PAH monotherapy Patient is stable or has improved while on bosentan Bosentan is to be used as PAH dual therapy Patient has tried a PAH monotherapy for at least three months and either failed to respond or later deteriorated Bosentan is to be used as PAH triple therapy Patient is on the lung transplant list Patient is presenting acutely with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) in New York Heart Association/World Health Organization (NYHA/WHO) Functional Class IV Patient is deteriorating rapidly to NYHA/WHO Functional Class IV who may be lung transplant recipients in the future, if their disease is stabilised Patient has PAH associated with the scleroderma spectrum of diseases (APAHSSD) who have no major morbidities and are deteriorating despite combination therapy medical practitioner 6 Ambrisentan <range>Ambrisentan</range> For use in patients with a valid Special Authority approval for ambrisentan by the Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension Panel In-hospital stabilisations in emergency situations medical practitioner Phosphodiesterase Type 5 Inhibitors Sildenafil <range>Sildenafil</range> Patient has Raynaud's phenomenon Patient has severe digital ischaemia (defined as severe pain requiring hospital admission or with a high likelihood of digital ulceration; digital ulcers; or gangrene) Patient is following lifestyle management (proper body insulation, avoidance of cold exposure, smoking cessation support, avoidance of sympathomimetic drugs) Patient has persisting severe symptoms despite treatment with calcium channel blockers and nitrates (unless contraindicated or not tolerated) medical practitioner Patient has pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)* PAH is in Group 1 of the WHO (Venice) clinical classifications PAH is in Group 4 of the WHO (Venice) clinical classifications PAH is in Group 5 of the WHO (Venice) clinical classifications PAH is in NYHA/WHO functional class II PAH is in NYHA/WHO functional class III PAH is in NYHA/WHO functional class IV Patient has a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) less than or equal to 15 mmHg Patient has a mean pulmonary artery pressure (PAPm) > 25 mmHg Patient is peri Fontan repair Patient has a pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) of at least 3 Wood Units or at least 240 International Units (dyn s cm-5) Testing for PCWP, PAPm, or PVR cannot be performed due to the patient’s young age For use in neonatal units for persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN) In-hospital stabilisation in emergency situations medical practitioner For use in weaning patients from inhaled nitric oxide For perioperative use in cardiac surgery patients For use in intensive care as an alternative to nitric oxide medical practitioner For use in the treatment of pulmonary hypertension in infants or children being treated in paediatric intensive care units and neonatal intensive care units when the enteral route is not accessible For perioperative use following cardiac surgery For use in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN) For use in congenital diaphragmatic hernia medical practitioner Prostacyclin Analogues Epoprostenol <range>Epoprostenol</range> For use in patients with a valid Special Authority approval for epoprostenol by the Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension Panel In-hospital stabilisation in emergency situations medical practitioner Iloprost Inj 50 mcg in 0.5 ml ampoule Ilomedin 5 380.00 Nebuliser soln 10 mcg per ml, 2 ml <range>Iloprost - Nebuliser soln 10 mcg per ml, 2 ml</range> For use in patients with a valid Special Authority approval for iloprost by the Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension Panel For diagnostic use in catheter laboratories For use following mitral or tricuspid valve surgery In-hospital stabilisation in emergency situations medical practitioner Dermatologicals Anti-Infective Preparations Antibacterials Mupirocin Oint 2% Any 0 Mafenide acetate <range>Mafenide acetate</range> For the treatment of burns patients medical practitioner Sodium fusidate [Fusidic acid] Crm 2% DP Fusidic Acid Cream 15 2.52 Oint 2% Foban 15 3.45 Hydrogen peroxide Soln 3% (10 vol) Pharmacy Health 100 1.40 Crm 1% Crystaderm 15 8.56 Sulfadiazine silver Crm 1% Flamazine 50 10.80 Antifungals Amorolfine Nail soln 5% MycoNail 5 15.95 Ciclopirox olamine Nail soln 8% Apo-Ciclopirox 7 5.72 Soln 1%

For continuation only

Any 0 Econazole nitrate Crm 1%

For continuation only

Any 0 Foaming soln 1% Any 0 Miconazole nitrate Lotn 2%

For continuation only

Any 0 Tinc 2% Any 0 Crm 2% Multichem 15 0.74 Nystatin Crm 100,000 u per g Any 0 Metronidazole Gel 0.75% Any 0 Clotrimazole Soln 1%

For continuation only

Any 0 Crm 1% Clomazol 20 0.70 Ketoconazole Shampoo 2% Sebizole 100 2.99 Antiparasitics Dimethicone Lotn 4% healthE Dimethicone 4% Lotion 200 4.98 Malathion [Maldison] Lotn 0.5% Any 0 Shampoo 1% Any 0 Phenothrin Shampoo 0.5% Any 0 Permethrin Crm 5% Lyderm 30 4.95 Lotn 5% A-Scabies 30 3.69 Antiacne Preparations Antiacne Preparations Adapalene Crm 0.1% Any 0 Gel 0.1% Any 0 Benzoyl peroxide Soln 5% Any 0 Isotretinoin Cap 10 mg Oratane 120 13.34 Cap 20 mg Oratane 120 20.49 Cap 5 mg Oratane 60 8.14 Tretinoin Crm 0.05% ReTrieve 50 13.90 Antipruritic Preparations Antipruritic Preparations Crotamiton Crm 10% Itch-Soothe 20 3.29 Calamine Crm, aqueous, BP Pharmacy Health 100 1.49 healthE Calamine Aqueous Cream BP 100 1.26 Lotn, BP PSM 2000 12.94 Barrier Creams and Emollients Barrier Creams Dimethicone Crm 5% tube healthE Dimethicone 5% 100 1.59 Crm 5% pump bottle healthE Dimethicone 5% 500 4.59 Crm 10% pump bottle healthE Dimethicone 10% 500 4.52 Zinc Crm e.g. Zinc Cream (Orion);Zinc Cream (PSM) 0 Oint e.g. Zinc oxide (PSM) 0 Paste Any 0 Zinc with wool fat Crm zinc 15.25% with wool fat 4% e.g. Sudocrem 0 Zinc and castor oil Oint, BP

Note: DV limit applies to the pack sizes of 30 g or less.

healthE 20 1.26 Crm Orion 20 1.63 Oint

Note: DV limit applies to the pack sizes of greater that 30 g.

Boucher 500 4.25 Emollients Cetomacrogol with glycerol Crm 90% with glycerol 10%, healthE 100 3.20 Crm 90% with glycerol 10% Pharmacy Health Sorbolene with Glycerin 500 2.82 1000 3.87 Glycerol with paraffin Crm glycerol 10% with white soft paraffin 5% and liquid paraffin 10% e.g. QV cream 0 Paraffin with wool fat Lotn liquid paraffin 15.9% with wool fat 0.6% e.g. AlphaKeri;BK ;DP; Hydroderm Lotn 0 Lotn liquid paraffin 91.7% with wool fat 3% e.g. Alpha Keri Bath Oil 0 Urea Crm 10% healthE Urea Cream 100 1.37 Wool fat Crm Any 0 Aqueous cream Crm 500 g

Note: DV limit applies to the pack sizes of greater than 100 g.

AFT SLS-free 500 1.99 Boucher 500 1.92 Crm 100 g

Note: DV limit applies to the pack sizes of 100 g or less.

Pharmacy Health SLS-free 100 1.05 Emulsifying ointment Oint BP

Note: DV limit applies to pack sizes of less than 200 g.

Jaychem 100 1.84 Oint BP, 500 g

Note: DV limit applies to pack sizes of greater than 200 g.

AFT 500 3.59 Oil in water emulsion Crm healthE Fatty Cream 500 2.63 Crm, 100 g healthE Fatty Cream 1 1 1.44 Paraffin Oint liquid paraffin 50% with white soft paraffin 50% healthE 100 3.10 Yellow soft Any 0 White soft

Note: DV limit applies to pack sizes of 30 g or less, and to both white soft paraffin and yellow soft paraffin.

healthE 10 0.79 Cetomacrogol Crm BP, 100 g healthE 1 1.42 Crm BP, 500 g healthE 500 2.48 Corticosteroids Corticosteroids Betamethasone dipropionate Crm 0.05% Any 0 Oint 0.05% Any 0 Clobetasone butyrate Crm 0.05% Any 0 Diflucortolone valerate

For continuation only

Crm 0.1% Any 0 Fatty oint 0.1% Any 0 Hydrocortisone and paraffin liquid and lanolin Lotn 1% with paraffin liquid 15.9% and lanolin 0.6% DP Lotn HC 250 10.57 Hydrocortisone Crm 1%, 500 g

Note: DV limit applies to the pack sizes of greater than 100 g.

Pharmacy Health 500 16.25 Crm 1%, 30 g

Note: DV limit applies to the pack sizes of less than or equal to 100 g.

DermAssist 30 1.11 Triamcinolone acetonide Crm 0.02% Aristocort 100 6.30 Oint 0.02% Aristocort 100 6.35 Clobetasol propionate Crm 0.05% Dermol 30 2.20 Oint 0.05% Dermol 30 2.20 Hydrocortisone butyrate Crm 0.1% Locoid Lipocream 30 2.30 100 6.85 Oint 0.1% Locoid 100 6.85 Milky emul 0.1% Locoid Crelo 100 6.85 Methylprednisolone aceponate Crm 0.1% Advantan 15 4.95 Oint 0.1% Advantan 15 4.95 Hydrocortisone acetate Crm 1% AFT 14.2 2.48 Betamethasone valerate Crm 0.1% Beta Cream 50 3.45 Lotn 0.1% Betnovate 50 18.00 Oint 0.1% Beta Ointment 50 3.45 Mometasone furoate Crm 0.1% Elocon Alcohol Free 15 1.51 50 2.50 Oint 0.1% Elocon 15 1.51 50 2.90 Lotn 0.1% Elocon 30 6.30 Corticosteroids with Anti-Infective Agents Betamethasone valerate with clioquinol <range>Betamethasone valerate with clioquinol</range> For the treatment of intertrigo For continuation use medical practitioner Betamethasone valerate with sodium fusidate [Fusidic acid] Crm 0.1% with sodium fusidate (fusidic acid) 2% Any 0 Triamcinolone acetonide with neomycin sulphate, gramicidin and nystatin Crm 1 mg with nystatin 100,000 u, neomycin sulphate 2.5 mg and gramicidin 250 mcg per g Any 0 Hydrocortisone with natamycin and neomycin Crm 1% with natamycin 1% and neomycin sulphate 0.5% Pimafucort 15 2.79 Oint 1% with natamycin 1% and neomycin sulphate 0.5% Pimafucort 15 2.79 Hydrocortisone with miconazole Crm 1% with miconazole nitrate 2% Micreme H 15 2.00 Psoriasis and Eczema Preparations Psoriasis and Eczema Preparations Coal tar with salicylic acid and sulphur Oint 12% with salicylic acid 2% and sulphur 4% Any 0 Methoxsalen [8-methoxypsoralen] Lotn 1.2% Any 0 Tab 10 mg Any 0 Potassium permanganate Tab 400 mg Any 0 Crystals Any 0 Calcipotriol Oint 50 mcg per g Daivonex 100 45.00 Pine tar with trolamine laurilsulfate and fluorescein Soln 2.3% with trolamine laurilsulfate and fluorescein sodium Pinetarsol 500 3.86 Acitretin Cap 10 mg Novatretin 60 17.86 Cap 25 mg Novatretin 60 41.36 Betamethasone dipropionate with calcipotriol Oint 500 mcg with calcipotriol 50 mcg per g Daivobet 30 19.95 Gel 500 mcg with calcipotriol 50 mcg per g Daivobet 30 26.12 60 52.24 Scalp Preparations Scalp Preparations Clobetasol propionate Scalp app 0.05% Dermol 30 6.96 Hydrocortisone butyrate Scalp lotn 0.1% Locoid 100 3.65 Betamethasone valerate Scalp app 0.1% Beta Scalp 100 7.75 Wart Preparations Wart Preparations Silver nitrate Sticks with applicator Any 0 Podophyllotoxin Soln 0.5% Condyline 3.5 33.60 Imiquimod Crm 5%, 250 mg sachet Perrigo 24 21.72 Other Skin Preparations Other Skin Preparations Diphemanil metilsulfate Powder 2% Any 0 Sunscreen, proprietary Crm Any 0 Lotn Marine Blue Lotion SPF 50+ 100 3.30 200 5.10 Antineoplastics Methyl aminolevulinate hydrochloride <range>Methyl aminolevulinate hydrochloride</range> No patient criteria dermatologist plastic surgeon Fluorouracil sodium Crm 5% Efudix 20 7.95 Wound Management Products Calcium gluconate Gel 2.5% e.g. Orion 0 Genito-Urinary System Anti-Infective Agents Anti-Infective Agents Acetic acid Soln 3% Any 0 Soln 5% Any 0 Acetic acid with hydroxyquinoline, glycerol and ricinoleic acid Jelly 0.94% with hydroxyquinoline sulphate 0.025%, glycerol 5% and ricinoleic acid 0.75% with applicator Any 0 Miconazole nitrate Vaginal crm 2% with applicator Micreme 40 3.88 Nystatin Vaginal crm 100,000 u per 5 g with applicator(s) Nilstat 75 4.45 Clotrimazole Vaginal crm 1% with applicator Clomazol 35 1.60 Vaginal crm 2% with applicator Clomazol 20 2.10 Chlorhexidine gluconate Lotn 1%, 200 ml healthE 1 2.98 Crm 1% healthE 50 1.21 Contraceptives Antiandrogen Oral Contraceptives Cyproterone acetate with ethinyloestradiol Tab 2 mg with ethinyloestradiol 35 mcg and 7 inert tablets Ginet 168 4.67 Combined Oral Contraceptives Ethinyloestradiol with desogestrel Tab 20 mcg with desogestrel 150 mcg Any 0 Tab 30 mcg with desogestrel 150 mcg Any 0 Ethinyloestradiol with norethisterone Tab 35 mcg with norethisterone 1 mg Any 0 Tab 35 mcg with norethisterone 500 mcg Any 0 Norethisterone with mestranol Tab 1 mg with mestranol 50 mcg Any 0 Ethinyloestradiol with levonorgestrel Tab 20 mcg with levonorgestrel 100 mcg Any 0 Tab 30 mcg with levonorgestrel 150 mcg Any 0 Tab 50 mcg with levonorgestrel 125 mcg Microgynon 50 ED 84 9.45 Tab 20 mcg with levonorgestrel 100 mcg and 7 inert tablets Microgynon 20 ED 84 2.18 Tab 30 mcg with levonorgestrel 150 mcg and 7 inert tablets Levlen ED 84 1.77 Contraceptive Devices Intra-uterine device IUD 29.1 mm length x 23.2 mm width Choice TT380 Short 1 31.60 IUD 33.6 mm length x 29.9 mm width Choice TT380 Standard 1 31.60 IUD 35.5 mm length x 19.6 mm width Choice Load 375 1 31.60 Emergency Contraception Levonorgestrel Tab 1.5 mg Postinor-1 1 4.95 Progestogen-Only Contraceptives Medroxyprogesterone acetate Inj 150 mg per ml, 1 ml syringe Depo-Provera 1 7.25 Norethisterone Tab 350 mcg Noriday 28 84 6.25 Levonorgestrel Intra-uterine system, 20 mcg per day <range>Levonorgestrel - Intra-uterine system, 20 mcg per day</range> The patient has a clinical diagnosis of heavy menstrual bleeding The patient has failed to respond to or is unable to tolerate other appropriate pharmaceutical therapies as per the Heavy Menstrual Bleeding Guidelines Serum ferritin level < 16 mcg/l (within the last 12 months) Haemoglobin level < 120 g/l The patient has had a uterine ultrasound and either a hysteroscopy or endometrial biopsy obstetrician gynaecologist Patient demonstrated clinical improvement of heavy menstrual bleeding Previous insertion was removed or expelled within 3 months of insertion obstetrician gynaecologist The patient has a clinical diagnosis of endometriosis confirmed by laparoscopy obstetrician gynaecologist Patient demonstrated satisfactory management of endometriosis Previous insertion was removed or expelled within 3 months of insertion obstetrician gynaecologist

endometriosis is an unregistered indication.

 Tab 30 mcg Any 0 Subdermal implant (2 x 75 mg rods) Jadelle 1 106.92 Obstetric Preparations Antiprogestogens Mifepristone Tab 200 mg Any 0 Oxytocics Carboprost trometamol Inj 250 mcg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Any 0 Oxytocin with ergometrine maleate Inj 5 iu with ergometrine maleate 500 mcg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Syntometrine 5 15.00 Oxytocin Inj 10 iu per ml, 1 ml ampoule Oxytocin BNM 5 4.98 Inj 5 iu per ml, 1 ml ampoule Oxytocin BNM 5 3.98 Dinoprostone Pessaries 10 mg Any 0 Vaginal gel 1 mg in 3 g Prostin E2 1 52.65 Vaginal gel 2 mg in 3 g Prostin E2 1 64.60 Ergometrine maleate Inj 500 mcg per ml, 1 ml ampoule DBL Ergometrine 5 105.00 Tocolytics Progesterone <range>Progesterone</range> For the prevention of pre-term labour* The patient has a short cervix on ultrasound (defined as < 25mm at 16 to 28 weeks) The patient has a history of pre-term birth at less than 28 weeks gynaecologist obstetrician 12 For the prevention of pre-term labour* Treatment is required for second or subsequent pregnancy The patient has a short cervix on ultrasound (defined as < 25mm at 16 to 28 weeks) The patient has a history of pre-term birth at less than 28 weeks gynaecologist obstetrician 12

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications.

 Terbutaline <range>Terbutaline</range> No patient criteria obstetrician Oestrogens Oestrogens Oestriol Crm 1 mg per g with applicator Ovestin 15 6.62 Pessaries 500 mcg Ovestin 15 6.86 Urologicals 5-Alpha Reductase Inhibitors Finasteride <range>Finasteride</range> Patient has symptomatic benign prostatic hyperplasia The patient is intolerant of non-selective alpha blockers or these are contraindicated Symptoms are not adequately controlled with non-selective alpha blockers medical practitioner Alpha-1A Adrenoceptor Blockers Tamsulosin hydrochloride <range>Tamsulosin</range> Patient has symptomatic benign prostatic hyperplasia The patient is intolerant of non-selective alpha blockers or these are contraindicated medical practitioner Urinary Alkalisers Sodium citro-tartrate Grans eff 4 g sachets Ural 28 2.34 Potassium citrate <range>Potassium citrate</range> The patient has recurrent calcium oxalate urolithiasis The patient has had more than two renal calculi in the two years prior to the application medical practitioner Urinary Antispasmodics Oxybutynin Oral liq 5 mg per 5 ml Apo-Oxybutynin 473 60.40 Tab 5 mg Apo-Oxybutynin 500 8.85 Solifenacin succinate <range>Solifenacin succinate</range> Patient has overactive bladder and a documented intolerance of, or is non-responsive to, oxybutynin medical practitioner Tolterodine tartrate <range>Tolterodine tartrate</range> Patient has overactive bladder and a documented intolerance of, or is non-responsive to, oxybutynin medical practitioner Hormone Preparations Anabolic Agents Anabolic Agents Oxandrolone Tab 2.5 mg <range>Oxandroline - Tab 2.5 mg</range> For the treatment of burns patients medical practitioner Androgen Agonists and Antagonists Androgen Agonists and Antagonists Testosterone esters Inj testosterone decanoate 100 mg, testosterone isocarproate 60 mg, testosterone phenylpropionate 60 mg and testosterone propionate 30 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Any 0 Cyproterone acetate Tab 50 mg Siterone 50 13.17 Procur 50 15.87 Tab 100 mg Siterone 50 26.75 Procur 50 30.40 Testosterone Patch 5 mg per day Androderm 30 80.00 Testosterone cipionate Inj 100 mg per ml, 10 ml vial Depo-Testosterone 1 76.50 Testosterone undecanoate Cap 40 mg Andriol Testocaps 60 21.00 Inj 250 mg per ml, 4 ml vial Reandron 1000 1 86.00 Calcium Homeostasis Calcium Homeostasis Cinacalcet <range>Cinacalcet</range> The patient has been diagnosed with a parathyroid carcinoma (see Note) The patient has persistent hypercalcaemia (serum calcium greater than or equal to 3 mmol/L) despite previous first-line treatments including sodium thiosulfate (where appropriate) and bisphosphonates The patient is symptomatic The patient has been diagnosed with calciphylaxis (calcific uraemic arteriolopathy) The patient has symptomatic (e.g. painful skin ulcers) hypercalcaemia (serum calcium greater than or equal to 3 mmol/L) The patient's condition has not responded to previous first-line treatments including bisphosphonates and sodium thiosulfate nephrologist endocrinologist 6 The patient's serum calcium level has fallen to < 3mmol/L The patient has experienced clinically significant symptom improvement nephrologist endocrinologist 1

This does not include parathyroid adenomas unless these have become malignant.

 Zoledronic acid Inj 4 mg per 5 ml, vial <range>Zoledronic acid Inj 4 mg per 5 ml, vial</range> Patient has hypercalcaemia of malignancy Patient has bone metastases or involvement Patient has severe bone pain resistant to standard first-line treatments Patient has bone metastases or involvement Patient is at risk of skeletal-related events (pathological fracture, spinal cord compression, radiation to bone or surgery to bone) oncologist haematologist palliative care specialist Treatment to be used as adjuvant therapy for early breast cancer Patient has been amenorrhoeic for 12 months or greater, either naturally or induced, with endocrine levels consistent with a postmenopausal state Treatment to be administered at a minimum interval of 6-monthly for a maximum of 2 years oncologist Calcitonin Inj 100 iu per ml, 1 ml ampoule Miacalcic 5 121.00 5 121.00 Corticosteroids Corticosteroids Betamethasone Inj 4 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Any 0 Tab 500 mcg Any 0 Betamethasone sodium phosphate with betamethasone acetate Inj 3.9 mg with betamethasone acetate 3 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Any 0 Methylprednisolone (as sodium succinate) Inj 1 g vial Solu-Medrol 1 27.83 Inj 125 mg vial Solu-Medrol Act-O-Vial 1 28.90 Inj 40 mg vial Solu-Medrol Act-O-Vial 1 18.90 Inj 500 mg vial Solu-Medrol Act-O-Vial 1 22.78 Tab 100 mg Medrol 20 194.00 Tab 4 mg Medrol 100 112.00 Prednisolone Enema 200 mcg per ml, 100 ml Any 0 Oral liq 5 mg per ml Redipred 30 6.00 Triamcinolone hexacetonide Inj 20 mg per ml, 1 ml vial Any 0 Hydrocortisone Tab 5 mg Douglas 100 100 8.10 Tab 20 mg Douglas 100 100 20.32 Inj 100 mg vial Solu-Cortef 1 5.30 Triamcinolone acetonide Inj 10 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Kenacort-A 10 5 20.80 Inj 40 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Kenacort-A 40 5 51.10 Fludrocortisone acetate Tab 100 mcg Florinef 100 14.32 Dexamethasone Oral liq 1 mg per ml Biomed 25 45.00 Tab 4 mg Dexmethsone 30 1.90 Tab 0.5 mg Dexmethsone 30 0.99 Methylprednisolone acetate Inj 40 mg per ml, 1 ml vial Depo-Medrol 5 44.40 Methylprednisolone acetate with lidocaine [Lignocaine] Inj 40 mg with lidocaine [lignocaine], 1 ml vial Depo-Medrol with Lidocaine 1 9.25 Dexamethasone phosphate Inj 4 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Max Health 10 14.19 Inj 4 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Max Health 10 25.18 Prednisone Tab 1 mg Apo-Prednisone 500 10.68 Tab 2.5 mg Apo-Prednisone 500 12.09 Tab 5 mg Apo-Prednisone 500 11.09 Tab 20 mg Apo-Prednisone 500 29.03 Hormone Replacement Therapy Oestrogens Oestradiol Patch 100 mcg per day Estradot 8 7.91 Patch 25 mcg per day Estradot 8 6.12 Patch 50 mcg per day Estradot 8 7.04 Tab 1 mg Any 0 Tab 2 mg Any 0 Patch 75 mcg per day Estradot 8 7.91 Oestradiol valerate Tab 1 mg Progynova 84 12.36 Tab 2 mg Progynova 84 12.36 Oestrogens (conjugated equine) Tab 300 mcg Any 0 Tab 625 mcg Any 0 Progestogen and Oestrogen Combined Preparations Oestradiol with norethisterone acetate Tab 1 mg with 0.5 mg norethisterone acetate Any 0 Tab 2 mg with 1 mg norethisterone acetate Any 0 Tab 2 mg with 1 mg norethisterone acetate (10), and tab 2 mg oestradiol (12) and tab 1 mg oestradiol (6) Any 0 Oestrogens with medroxyprogesterone acetate Tab 625 mcg conjugated equine with 2.5 mg medroxyprogesterone acetate Any 0 Tab 625 mcg conjugated equine with 5 mg medroxyprogesterone acetate Any 0 Progestogens Medroxyprogesterone acetate Tab 2.5 mg Provera 30 30 3.75 Tab 5 mg Provera 100 100 14.00 Tab 10 mg Provera 30 30 7.15 Other Endocrine Agents Other Endocrine Agents Gestrinone Cap 2.5 mg Any 0 Metyrapone Cap 250 mg Any 0 Pentagastrin Inj 250 mcg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Any 0 Clomifene citrate Tab 50 mg Serophene 10 29.84 Mylan Clomiphen 10 29.84 Danazol Cap 100 mg Azol 100 68.33 Cap 200 mg Azol 100 97.83 Cabergoline <range>Cabergoline</range> Inhibition of lactation Patient has pathological hyperprolactinemia Patient has acromegaly medical practitioner Other Oestrogen Preparations Other Oestrogen Preparations Ethinyloestradiol Tab 10 mcg NZ Medical and Scientific 100 17.60 Oestradiol Implant 50 mg Any 0 Oestriol Tab 2 mg Any 0 Other Progestogen Preparations Other Progestogen Preparations Medroxyprogesterone Tab 100 mg Provera HD 100 101.00 Norethisterone Tab 5 mg Primolut N 100 18.29 Pituitary and Hypothalamic Hormones and Analogues Pituitary and Hypothalamic Hormones and Analogues Corticotrorelin (ovine) Inj 100 mcg vial Any 0 Thyrotropin alfa Inj 900 mcg vial Any 0 Adrenocorticotropic Hormones Tetracosactide [Tetracosactrin] Inj 250 mcg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Synacthen 1 75.00 Inj 1 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Synacthen Depot 1 690.00 GnRH Agonists and Antagonists Buserelin Inj 1 mg per ml, 5.5 ml vial Any 0 Gonadorelin Inj 100 mcg vial Any 0 Goserelin Implant 10.8 mg, syringe Zoladex 1 177.50 Implant 3.6 mg, syringe Zoladex 1 66.48 Leuprorelin acetate Inj 3.75 mg prefilled dual chamber syringe Lucrin Depot 1-month 1 221.60 Inj 11.25 mg prefilled dual chamber syringe Lucrin Depot 3-month 1 591.68 Gonadotrophins Choriogonadotropin alfa Inj 250 mcg in 0.5 ml syringe Any 0 Growth Hormone Somatropin <range>Somatropin</range> Growth hormone deficiency causing symptomatic hypoglycaemia, or with other significant growth hormone deficient sequelae (e.g. cardiomyopathy, hepatic dysfunction) and diagnosed with GH < 5 mcg/l on at least two random blood samples in the first 2 weeks of life, or from samples during established hypoglycaemia (whole blood glucose < 2 mmol/l using a laboratory device) Height velocity < 25th percentile for age; and adjusted for bone age/pubertal status if appropriate over 6 or 12 months using the standards of Tanner and Davies (1985) A current bone age is < 14 years (female patients) or < 16 years (male patients) Peak growth hormone value of < 5.0 mcg per litre in response to two different growth hormone stimulation tests. In children who are 5 years or older, GH testing with sex steroid priming is required If the patient has been treated for a malignancy, they should be disease free for at least one year based upon follow-up laboratory and radiological imaging appropriate for the malignancy, unless there are strong medical reasons why this is either not necessary or appropriate Appropriate imaging of the pituitary gland has been obtained endocrinologist paediatric endocrinologist 12 A current bone age is 14 years or under (female patients) or 16 years or under (male patients) Height velocity is greater than or equal to 25th percentile for age (adjusted for bone age/pubertal status if appropriate) while on growth hormone treatment, as calculated over six months using the standards of Tanner and Davis (1985) Height velocity is greater than or equal to 2.0 cm per year, as calculated over 6 months No serious adverse effect that the patients specialist considers is likely to be attributable to growth hormone treatment has occurred No malignancy has developed since starting growth hormone endocrinologist paediatric endocrinologist 12 The patient has a post-natal genotype confirming Turner Syndrome Height velocity is < 25th percentile over 6-12 months using the standards of Tanner and Davies (1985) A current bone age is < 14 years endocrinologist paediatric endocrinologist 12 Height velocity greater than or equal to 50th percentile for age (while on growth hormone calculated over 6 to 12 months using the Ranke’s Turner Syndrome growth velocity charts) Height velocity is greater than or equal to 2 cm per year, calculated over six months A current bone age is 14 years or under No serious adverse effect that the specialist considers is likely to be attributable to growth hormone treatment has occurred No malignancy has developed since starting growth hormone endocrinologist paediatric endocrinologist 12 The patient’s height is more than 3 standard deviations below the mean for age or for bone age if there is marked growth acceleration or delay Height velocity is < 25th percentile for age (adjusted for bone age/pubertal status if appropriate), as calculated over 6 to 12 months using the standards of Tanner and Davies(1985) A current bone age is < 14 years (female patients) or < 16 years (male patients) The patient does not have severe chronic disease (including malignancy or recognized severe skeletal dysplasia) and is not receiving medications known to impair height velocity endocrinologist paediatric endocrinologist 12 Height velocity is greater than or equal to 50th percentile (adjusted for bone age/pubertal status if appropriate) as calculated over 6 to 12 months using the standards of Tanner and Davies (1985) Height velocity is greater than or equal to 2 cm per year as calculated over six months Current bone age is 14 years or under (female patients) or 16 years or under (male patients) No serious adverse effect that the patient’s specialist considers is likely to be attributable to growth hormone treatment has occurred endocrinologist paediatric endocrinologist 12 The patient’s height is more than 2 standard deviations below the mean Height velocity is < 25th percentile (adjusted for bone age/pubertal status if appropriate) as calculated over 6 to 12 months using the standards of Tanner and Davies (1985) A current bone age is to 14 years or under (female patients) or to 16 years or under (male patients) The patient is metabolically stable, has no evidence of metabolic bone disease and absence of any other severe chronic disease The patient is under the supervision of a specialist with expertise in renal medicine The patient has a GFR less than or equal to 30 ml/min/1.73 m² as measured by the Schwartz method (Height(cm)/plasma creatinine (umol/l x 40 = corrected GFR (ml/min/1.73 m² ) in a child who may or may not be receiving dialysis The patient has received a renal transplant and has received < 5mg/ m² /day of prednisone or equivalent for at least 6 months endocrinologist paediatric endocrinologist renal physician 12 Height velocity is greater than or equal to 50th percentile (adjusted for bone age/pubertal status if appropriate) as calculated over 6 to 12 months using the standards of Tanner and Davies (1985) Height velocity is greater than or equal to 2 cm per year as calculated over six months A current bone age is 14 years or under (female patients) or 16 years or under (male patients) No serious adverse effect that the patients specialist considers is likely to be attributable to growth hormone has occurred No malignancy has developed after growth hormone therapy was commenced The patient has not experienced significant biochemical or metabolic deterioration confirmed by diagnostic results The patient has not received renal transplantation since starting growth hormone treatment If the patient requires transplantation, growth hormone prescription should cease before transplantation and a new application should be made after transplantation based on the above criteria endocrinologist paediatric endocrinologist renal physician 12 The patient has a diagnosis of Prader-Willi syndrome that has been confirmed by genetic testing or clinical scoring criteria The patient is aged six months or older A current bone age is < 14 years (female patients) or < 16 years (male patients) Sleep studies or overnight oximetry have been performed and there is no obstructive sleep disorder requiring treatment, or if an obstructive sleep disorder is found, it has been adequately treated under the care of a paediatric respiratory physician and/or ENT surgeon The patient is aged two years or older There is no evidence of type II diabetes or uncontrolled obesity defined by BMI that has increased by greater than or equal to 0.5 standard deviations in the preceding 12 months The patient is aged between six months and two years and a thorough upper airway assessment is planned to be undertaken prior to treatment commencement and at six to 12 weeks following treatment initiation endocrinologist paediatric endocrinologist 12 Height velocity is greater than or equal to 50th percentile (adjusted for bone age/pubertal status if appropriate) as calculated over 6 to 12 months using the standards of Tanner and Davies (1985) Height velocity is greater than or equal to 2 cm per year as calculated over six months A current bone age is 14 years or under (female patients) or 16 years or under (male patients) No serious adverse effect that the patient’s specialist con siders is likely to be attributable to growth hormone treatment has occurred No malignancy has developed after growth hormone therapy was commenced The patient has not developed type II diabetes or uncontrolled obesity as defined by BMI that has increased by greater than or equal to 0.5 standard deviations in the preceding 12 months endocrinologist paediatric endocrinologist 12 The patient has a medical condition that is known to cause growth hormone deficiency (e.g. surgical removal of the pituitary for treatment of a pituitary tumour) The patient has undergone appropriate treatment of other hormonal deficiencies and psychological illnesses The patient has severe growth hormone deficiency (see notes) The patient’s serum IGF-I is more than 1 standard deviation below the mean for age and sex The patient has poor quality of life, as defined by a score of 16 or more using the disease-specific quality of life questionnaire for adult growth hormone deficiency (QoL-AGHDA®) endocrinologist paediatric endocrinologist 12

For the purposes of adults and adolescents, severe growth hormone deficiency is defined as a peak serum growth hormone level of less than or equal to 3 mcg per litre during an adequately performed insulin tolerance test (ITT) or glucagon stimulation test.

Patients with one or more additional anterior pituitary hormone deficiencies and a known structural pituitary lesion only require one test. Patients with isolated growth hormone deficiency require two growth hormone stimulation tests, of which, one should be ITT unless otherwise contraindicated. Where an additional test is required, an arginine provocation test can be used with a peak serum growth hormone level of less than or equal to 0.4 mcg per litre.

The dose of somatropin should be started at 0.2 mg daily and be titrated by 0.1 mg monthly until it is within 1 standard deviation of the mean normal value for age and sex; and

The dose of somatropin not to exceed 0.7 mg per day for male patients, or 1 mg per day for female patients.

At the commencement of treatment for hypopituitarism, patients must be monitored for any required adjustment in replacement doses of corticosteroid and levothyroxine.

 The patient has been treated with somatropin for < 12 months There has been an improvement in the Quality of Life Assessment defined as a reduction of at least 8 points on the Quality of Life Assessment of Growth Hormone Deficiency in Adults (QoL-AGHDA®) score from baseline Serum IGF-I levels have increased to within ±1SD of the mean of the normal range for age and sex The dose of somatropin does not exceed 0.7 mg per day for male patients, or 1 mg per day for female patients The patient has been treated with somatropin for more than 12 months The patient has not had a deterioration in Quality of Life defined as a 6 point or greater increase from their lowest QoL-AGHDA® score on treatment (other than due to obvious external factors such as external stressors) Serum IGF-I levels have continued to be maintained within ±1SD of the mean of the normal range for age and sex (other than for obvious external factors) The dose of somatropin has not exceeded 0.7 mg per day for male patients or 1 mg per day for female patients endocrinologist paediatric endocrinologist 12 Thyroid and Antithyroid Preparations Thyroid and Antithyroid Preparations Carbimazole Tab 5 mg Any 0 Iodine Soln BP 50 mg per ml Any 0 Levothyroxine Tab 100 mcg Any 0 Tab 25 mcg Any 0 Tab 50 mcg Any 0 Liothyronine sodium Inj 20 mcg vial Any 0 Tab 20 mcg <range>Liothyronine sodium - Tab 20 mcg</range> For a maximum of 14 days' treatment in patients with thyroid cancer who are due to receive radioiodine therapy medical practitioner Potassium iodate Tab 170 mg Any 0 Potassium perchlorate Cap 200 mg Any 0 Protirelin Inj 100 mcg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Any 0 Propylthiouracil <range>Propylthiouracil</range> The patient has hyperthyroidism The patient is intolerant of carbimazole or carbimazole is contraindicated medical practitioner

Propylthiouracil is not recommended for patients under the age of 18 years unless the patient is pregnant and other treatments are contraindicated.

 Vasopressin Agents Vasopressin Agents Argipressin [Vasopressin] Inj 20 u per ml, 1 ml ampoule Any 0 Desmopressin acetate <range>Desmopressin acetate</range> The nasal forms of desmopressin are contraindicated An enuresis alarm is contraindicated medical practitioner

Cranial diabetes insipidus and the nasal forms of desmopressin are contraindicated.

 Terlipressin Inj 0.1 mg per ml, 8.5 ml ampoule Glypressin 5 450.00 Inj 1 mg per 8.5 ml ampoule Glypressin 5 215.00 Infections Antibacterials Aminoglycosides Streptomycin sulphate <range>Streptomycin sulphate</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist respiratory specialist Gentamicin sulphate Inj 40 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Pfizer 10 10 6.00 Inj 10 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule DBL Gentamicin 5 25.00 Inj 10 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule APP Pharmaceuticals 25 175.10 Amikacin <range>Amikacin</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist respiratory specialist Tobramycin Inj 100 mg per ml, 5 ml vial <range>Tobramycin</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist respiratory specialist Inj 40 mg per ml, 2 ml vial <range>Tobramycin</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist respiratory specialist Solution for inhalation 60 mg per ml, 5 ml <range>Tobramycin Solution for inhalation 60 mg per ml, 5 ml</range> Patient has cystic fibrosis medical practitioner Powder <range>Tobramcyin</range> For addition to orthopaedic bone cement medical practitioner Paromomycin <range>Paromomycin</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist gastroenterologist Carbapenems Imipenem with cilastatin <range>Imipenem with cilastatin</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Ertapenem <range>Ertapenem</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Meropenem <range>Meropenem</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Cephalosporins and Cephamycins - 1st Generation Cefazolin Inj 500 mg vial AFT 5 3.39 Inj 1 g vial AFT 5 3.29 Cefalexin Grans for oral liq 25 mg per ml Cefalexin Sandoz 100 8.75 Grans for oral liq 50 mg per ml Cefalexin Sandoz 100 11.75 Cap 500 mg Cephalexin ABM 20 3.95 Cap 250 mg Cephalexin ABM 20 3.50 Cephalosporins and Cephamycins - 2nd Generation Cefuroxime Inj 1.5 g vial Cefuroxime Actavis 10 14.36 Inj 750 mg vial Cefuroxime Actavis 10 9.85 Tab 250 mg Zinnat 50 29.40 Cefaclor Cap 250 mg Ranbaxy-Cefaclor 100 24.70 Grans for oral liq 25 mg per ml Ranbaxy-Cefaclor 100 3.53 Cefoxitin Inj 1 g vial Cefoxitin Actavis 10 58.00 Cephalosporins and Cephamycins - 3rd Generation Cefotaxime Inj 1 g vial DBL Cefotaxime 10 14.60 Inj 500 mg vial Cefotaxime Sandoz 1 1.90 Ceftazidime <range>Ceftazadime</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist respiratory specialist Ceftriaxone Inj 2 g vial Ceftriaxone-AFT 1 2.75 Inj 1 g vial DEVA 1 0.84 Inj 500 mg vial DEVA 1 1.20 Cephalosporins and Cephamycins - 4th Generation Cefepime <range>Cefepime</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Cephalosporins and Cephamycins - 5th Generation Ceftaroline fosamil <range>Ceftaroline</range> for patients where alternative therapies have failed for patients who have a contraindication or hypersensitivity to standard current therapies clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Macrolides Erythromycin (as stearate)

For continuation only

Tab 250 mg Any 0 Tab 500 mg Any 0 Roxithromycin <range>Roxithromycin tab dispersible 50 mg</range> Only for use in patients under 12 years of age medical practitioner Erythromycin (as lactobionate) Inj 1 g vial Erythrocin IV 1 16.00 Clarithromycin <range>Clarithromycin</range> Atypical mycobacterial infection Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection where there is drug resistance or intolerance to standard pharmaceutical agents medical practitioner Helicobacter pylori eradication medical practitioner Atypical mycobacterial infection Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection where there is drug resistance or intolerance to standard pharmaceutical agents Community-acquired pneumonia medical practitioner Erythromycin (as ethylsuccinate) Tab 400 mg E-Mycin 100 16.95 Grans for oral liq 200 mg per 5 ml E-Mycin 100 5.00 Grans for oral liq 400 mg per 5 ml E-Mycin 100 6.77 Azithromycin <range>Azithromycin</range> Patient has received a lung transplant, stem cell transplant or bone marrow transplant and requires treatment for bronchiolitis obliterans syndrome* Patient has received a lung transplant and requires prophylaxis for bronchiolitis obliterans syndrome* Patient has cystic fibrosis and has chronic infection with Pseudomonas aeruginosa or Pseudomonas related gram negative organisms* Patient has an atypical Mycobacterium infection medical practitioner

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications

 For prophylaxis of exacerbations of non-cystic fibrosis bronchiectasis* Patient is aged 18 and under Patient has had 3 or more exacerbations of their bronchiectasis, within a 12 month period Patient has had 3 acute admissions to hospital for treatment of infective respiratory exacerbations within a 12 month period respiratory specialist paediatrician 12

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications. A maximum of 24 months of azithromycin treatment for non-cystic fibrosis will be subsidised in the community.

 The patient has completed 12 months of azithromycin treatment for non-cystic fibrosis bronchiectasis Following initial 12 months of treatment, the patient has not received any further azithromycin treatment for non-cystic fibrosis bronchiectasis for a further 12 months, unless considered clinically inappropriate to stop treatment The patient will not receive more than a total of 24 months' azithromycin cumulative treatment (see note) respiratory specialist paediatrician 12

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications. A maximum of 24 months of azithromycin treatment for non-cystic fibrosis will be subsidised in the community.

 For any other condition medical practitioner 5 For any other condition medical practitioner 5 Penicillins Ticarcillin with clavulanic acid <range>Ticarcillin with clavulanic acid</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist respiratory specialist Amoxicillin with clavulanic acid Tab 500 mg with clavulanic acid 125 mg Augmentin 20 1.88 Grans for oral liq 25 mg with clavulanic acid 6.25 mg per ml Augmentin 100 3.83 Grans for oral liq 50 mg with clavulanic acid 12.5 mg per ml Curam 100 2.20 Inj 1,000 mg with clavulanic acid 200 mg vial m-Amoxiclav 10 12.80 Inj 500 mg with clavulanic acid 100 mg vial m-Amoxiclav 10 10.14 Amoxicillin Inj 250 mg vial Ibiamox 5 6.32 10 10.67 Inj 500 mg vial Ibiamox 5 1 7.23 10 12.41 Inj 1 g vial Ibiamox 5 11.00 10 17.29 Cap 250 mg Apo-Amoxi 500 14.97 Cap 500 mg Apo-Amoxi 500 16.75 Grans for oral liq 250 mg per 5 ml Alphamox 250 100 1.31 Grans for oral liq 125 mg per 5 ml Alphamox 125 100 1.20 Benzylpenicillin sodium [Penicillin G] Inj 600 mg (1 million units) vial Sandoz 10 10.35 Flucloxacillin Cap 250 mg Staphlex 250 16.83 Cap 500 mg Staphlex 500 56.61 Inj 250 mg vial Flucloxin 10 9.00 Inj 500 mg vial Flucloxin 10 9.40 Inj 1 g vial Flucil 5 5.22 Grans for oral liq 25 mg per ml AFT 100 2.49 100 2.29 Grans for oral liq 50 mg per ml AFT 100 3.25 100 3.68 Procaine penicillin Inj 1.5 g in 3.4 ml syringe Cilicaine 5 123.50 Benzathine benzylpenicillin Inj 900 mg (1.2 million units) in 2.3 ml syringe Bicillin LA 10 344.93 Phenoxymethylpenicillin [Penicillin V] Cap 250 mg Cilicaine VK 50 2.59 Cap 500 mg Cilicaine VK 50 4.26 Grans for oral liq 125 mg per 5 ml AFT 100 1.48 Grans for oral liq 250 mg per 5 ml AFT 100 1.58 Piperacillin with tazobactam <range>Piperacillin with tazobactam</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist respiratory specialist Quinolones Ciprofloxacin <range>Ciprofloxacin</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Norfloxacin Tab 400 mg Arrow-Norfloxacin 100 135.00 Moxifloxacin <range>Moxifloxacin</range> Active tuberculosis Documented resistance to one or more first-line medications Suspected resistance to one or more first-line medications (tuberculosis assumed to be contracted in an area with known resistance), as part of regimen containing other second-line agents Impaired visual acuity (considered to preclude ethambutol use) Significant pre-existing liver disease or hepatotoxicity from tuberculosis medications Significant documented intolerance and/or side effects following a reasonable trial of first-line medications Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex not responding to other therapy or where such therapy is contraindicated Patient is under five years of age and has had close contact with a confirmed multi-drug resistant tuberculosis case infectious disease specialist clinical microbiologist respiratory specialist Immunocompromised patient with pneumonia that is unresponsive to first-line treatment Pneumococcal pneumonia or other invasive pneumococcal disease highly resistant to other antibiotics infectious disease specialist clinical microbiologist Five days treatment for patients requiring prophylaxis following a penetrating eye injury ophthalmologist Has nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) confirmed Mycoplasma genitalium and is symptomatic Has tried and failed to clear infection using azithromycin Has laboratory confirmed azithromycin resistance Treatment is only for 7 days medical practitioner Tetracyclines Demeclocycline hydrochloride Cap 150 mg Any 0 Cap 300 mg Any 0 Tab 150 mg Any 0 Minocycline Cap 100 mg

For continuation only

Any 0 Tab 50 mg Any 0 Tigecycline <range>Tigecycline</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Doxycycline Inj 5 mg per ml, 20 ml vial Any 0 Tab 50 mg

For continuation only

Any 0 Tab 100 mg Doxine 250 6.75 Tetracycline Tab 250 mg Any 0 Cap 500 mg Tetracyclin Wolff 30 46.00 Other Antibacterials Daptomycin <range>Daptomycin</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Hexamine hippurate Tab 1 g Any 0 Lincomycin <range>Lincomycin</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Linezolid <range>Linezolid</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Nitrofurantoin Tab 100 mg Any 0 Tab 50 mg Any 0 Sulphadiazine <range>Sulphadiazine</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist maternal-foetal medicine specialist Teicoplanin <range>Teicoplanin</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Fosfomycin <range>Fosfomycin</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Pivmecillinam <range>Pivmecillinam</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Vancomycin <range>Vancomycin</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Chloramphenicol <range>Aztreonam, Chloramphenicol</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Clindamycin <range>Clindamycin</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Sodium fusidate [Fusidic acid] <range>Fusidic acid</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Colistin sulphomethate [Colestimethate] <range>Colistin sulphomethate [Colestimethate]</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist respiratory specialist Trimethoprim Tab 100 mg Any 0 Tab 300 mg TMP 50 16.50 Trimethoprim with sulphamethoxazole [Co-trimoxazole] Inj 16 mg with sulphamethoxazole 80 mg per ml, 5 ml ampoule Any 0 Tab 80 mg with sulphamethoxazole 400 mg Any 0 Oral liq 8 mg with sulphamethoxazole 40 mg per ml Deprim 100 2.97 Aztreonam <range>Aztreonam, Chloramphenicol</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Antifungals Imidazoles Ketoconazole Tab 200 mg <range>Ketoconazole - Tab 200 mg</range> No patient criteria oncologist Polyene Antimycotics Amphotericin B Inj (liposomal) 50 mg vial <range>Amphotericin B - Inj (liposomal) 50 mg vial</range> Proven or probable invasive fungal infection, to be prescribed under an established protocol Possible invasive fungal infection A multidisciplinary team (including an infectious disease physician or a clinical microbiologist) considers the treatment to be appropriate clinical microbiologist haematologist infectious disease specialist oncologist respiratory specialist transplant specialist Inj 50 mg vial <range>Amphotericin B - Inj 50 mg vial</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist haematologist infectious disease specialist oncologist respiratory specialist transplant specialist Nystatin Tab 500,000 u Nilstat 50 17.09 Cap 500,000 u Nilstat 50 15.47 Triazoles Fluconazole <range>Fluconazole</range> No patient criteria consultant Itraconazole <range>Itraconazole</range> No patient criteria clinical immunologist clinical microbiologist dermatologist infectious disease specialist Voriconazole <range>Voriconazole</range> Patient is immunocompromised Patient has proven or probable invasive aspergillus infection clinical microbiologist haematologist infectious disease specialist Patient is immunocompromised Patient has possible invasive aspergillus infection A multidisciplinary team (including an infectious disease physician) considers the treatment to be appropriate clinical microbiologist haematologist infectious disease specialist Patient is immunocompromised Patient has fluconazole resistant candidiasis Patient has mould strain such as Fusarium spp. and Scedosporium spp A multidisciplinary team (including an infectious disease physician or clinical microbiologist) considers the treatment to be appropriate clinical microbiologist haematologist infectious disease specialist Posaconazole <range>Posaconazole</range> Patient has acute myeloid leukaemia Patient is planned to receive a stem cell transplant and is at high risk for aspergillus infection Patient is to be treated with high dose remission induction therapy or re-induction therapy haematologist infectious disease specialist 6 Patient has previously received posaconazole prophylaxis during remission induction therapy Patient is to be treated with high dose remission re-induction therapy Patient is to be treated with high dose consolidation therapy Patient is receiving a high risk stem cell transplant haematologist infectious disease specialist 6 Other Antifungals Flucytosine <range>Flucytosine</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Terbinafine Tab 250 mg Deolate 14 1.33 Caspofungin <range>Caspofungin</range> Proven or probable invasive fungal infection, to be prescribed under an established protocol Possible invasive fungal infection A multidisciplinary team (including an infectious disease physician or a clinical microbiologist) considers the treatment to be appropriate clinical microbiologist haematologist infectious disease specialist oncologist respiratory specialist transplant specialist Antimycobacterials Antileprotics Clofazimine <range>Clofazimine</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist dermatologist infectious disease specialist Dapsone <range>Dapsone</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist dermatologist infectious disease specialist Antituberculotics Cycloserine <range>Cycloserine</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist respiratory specialist Isoniazid with rifampicin <range>Isoniazid with rifampicin</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist dermatologist paediatrician public health physician internal medicine physician Pyrazinamide <range>Pyrazinamide</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist respiratory specialist Rifampicin <range>Rifampicin</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist dermatologist internal medicine physician paediatrician public health physician Isoniazid <range>Isoniazid</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist dermatologist paediatrician public health physician internal medicine physician Rifabutin <range>Rifabutin</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist gastroenterologist infectious disease specialist respiratory specialist Ethambutol hydrochloride <range>Ethambutol hydrochloride</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist respiratory specialist Para-aminosalicylic Acid <range>Para-aminosalicylic Acid</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist respiratory specialist Protionamide <range>Protionamide</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist respiratory specialist Antiparasitics Anthelmintics Albendazole <range>Albendazole</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Praziquantel Tab 600 mg Any 0 Ivermectin <range>Ivermectin</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist dermatologist infectious disease specialist Mebendazole Oral liq 100 mg per 5 ml Any 0 Tab 100 mg De-Worm 24 24.19 Antiprotozoals Artemether with lumefantrine <range>Artemether with lumefantrine</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Artesunate <range>Artesunate</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Atovaquone with proguanil hydrochloride <range>Atovaquone with proguanil hydrochloride</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Chloroquine phosphate <range>Chloroquine phosphate</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist dermatologist infectious disease specialist rheumatologist Mefloquine <range>Mefloquine hydrochloride</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist dermatologist infectious disease specialist rheumatologist Pentamidine isethionate <range>Pentamidine isethionate</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Primaquine phosphate <range>Primaquine phosphate</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Pyrimethamine <range>Pyrimethamine</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist maternal-foetal medicine specialist Quinine dihydrochloride <range>Quinine dihydrochloride</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Sodium stibogluconate <range>Sodium stibogluconate</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Spiramycin <range>Spiramycin</range> No patient criteria maternal-foetal medicine specialist Quinine sulphate Tab 300 mg Q 300 100 6.66 500 61.91 Metronidazole Inj 5 mg per ml, 100 ml bag Baxter 10 23.00 Tab 200 mg Trichozole 100 10.45 Tab 400 mg Trichozole 100 18.15 Oral liq benzoate 200 mg per 5 ml Flagyl-S 100 25.00 Suppos 500 mg Flagyl 10 24.48 Inj 5 mg per ml, 100 ml bottle AFT 100 1.39 Ornidazole Tab 500 mg Arrow-Ornidazole 10 23.00 Nitazoxanide <range>Nitazoxanide</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Antiretrovirals Non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors <range>Non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors</range> Patient has confirmed HIV infection medical practitioner Prevention of maternal foetal transmission Treatment of the newborn for up to eight weeks medical practitioner Treatment course to be initiated within 72 hours post exposure Patient has had unprotected receptive anal intercourse with a known HIV positive person Patient has shared intravenous injecting equipment with a known HIV positive person Patient has had non-consensual intercourse and the clinician considers that the risk assessment indicates prophylaxis is required medical practitioner Patient has percutaneous exposure to blood known to be HIV positive medical practitioner Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors <range>Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors</range> Patient has confirmed HIV infection medical practitioner Prevention of maternal foetal transmission Treatment of the newborn for up to eight weeks medical practitioner Treatment course to be initiated within 72 hours post exposure Patient has had unprotected receptive anal intercourse with a known HIV positive person Patient has shared intravenous injecting equipment with a known HIV positive person Patient has had non-consensual intercourse and the clinician considers that the risk assessment indicates prophylaxis is required medical practitioner Patient has percutaneous exposure to blood known to be HIV positive medical practitioner Protease Inhibitors <range>Protease Inhibitors</range> Patient has confirmed HIV infection medical practitioner Prevention of maternal foetal transmission Treatment of the newborn for up to eight weeks medical practitioner Treatment course to be initiated within 72 hours post exposure Patient has had unprotected receptive anal intercourse with a known HIV positive person Patient has shared intravenous injecting equipment with a known HIV positive person Patient has had non-consensual intercourse and the clinician considers that the risk assessment indicates prophylaxis is required medical practitioner Patient has percutaneous exposure to blood known to be HIV positive medical practitioner Strand Transfer Inhibitors <range>Strand Transfer Inhibitors</range> Patient has confirmed HIV infection medical practitioner Prevention of maternal foetal transmission Treatment of the newborn for up to eight weeks medical practitioner Treatment course to be initiated within 72 hours post exposure Patient has had unprotected receptive anal intercourse with a known HIV positive person Patient has shared intravenous injecting equipment with a known HIV positive person Patient has had non-consensual intercourse and the clinician considers that the risk assessment indicates prophylaxis is required medical practitioner Patient has percutaneous exposure to blood known to be HIV positive medical practitioner Antivirals Hepatitis B Adefovir dipivoxil <range>Adefovir dipivoxil</range> Patient has confirmed Hepatitis B infection (HBsAg+) Documented resistance to lamivudine defined as: Patient has raised serum ALT (> 1 × ULN) Patient has HBV DNA greater than 100,000 copies per mL, or viral load greater than or equal to 10-fold over nadir Detection of M204I or M204V mutation Patient is cirrhotic Adefovir dipivoxil to be used in combination with lamivudine Patient is not cirrhotic Adefovir dipivoxil to be used as monotherapy gastroenterologist infectious disease specialist Tenofovir disoproxil Tab 245 mg (300.6 mg as a succinate) Tenofovir Disoproxil Teva 30 38.10 Entecavir Tab 0.5 mg Baraclude 30 400.00 Entecavir Sandoz 30 52.00 Lamivudine Oral liq 5 mg per ml Zeffix 240 270.00 Tab 100 mg Zetlam 28 4.20 Hepatitis C Ledipasvir with sofosbuvir <range>Ledipasvir with sofosbuvir</range> medical practitioner

Only for use in patients with approval by the Hepatitis C Treatment Panel (HepCTP). Applications will be considered by HepCTP at its regular meetings and approved subject to eligibility according to the Access Criteria (set out in Section B of the Pharmaceutical Schedule).

 Paritaprevir, ritonavir and oimbitasvir with dasabuvir

Note: Only for use in patients who have received supply of treatment via PHARMAC's approved direct distribution supply. Application details for accessing treatment may be obtained from PHARMAC's website http://www.pharmac.govt.nz/hepatitis-c-treatments/.

Tab 75 mg with ritonavir 50 mg, and ombitasvir 12.5 mg (56), with dasabuvir tab 250 mg (56) Viekira Pak 1 16500.00 Paritaprevir, ritonavir and ombitasvir with dasabuvir and ribavirin

Note: Only for use in patients who have received supply of treatment via PHARMAC's approved direct distribution supply. Application details for accessing treatment may be obtained from PHARMAC's website http://www.pharmac.govt.nz/hepatitis-c-treatments/.

Tab 75 mg with ritonavir 50 mg, and ombitasvir 12.5 mg (56) with dasabuvir tab 250 mg (56) and ribavirin tab 200 mg (168) Viekira Pak-RBV 1 16500.00 Herpesviridae Cidofovir <range>Cidofovir</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist otolaryngologist oral surgeon Foscarnet sodium <range>Foscarnet sodium</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Ganciclovir <range>Ganciclovir</range> No patient criteria clinical microbiologist infectious disease specialist Aciclovir Inj 250 mg vial Aciclovir-Claris 5 9.60 Tab dispersible 200 mg Lovir 25 1.60 Tab dispersible 400 mg Lovir 56 5.38 Tab dispersible 800 mg Lovir 35 5.98 Valaciclovir Tab 500 mg Vaclovir 30 5.75 Tab 1,000 mg Vaclovir 30 11.35 Valganciclovir <range>Valganciclovir</range> Patient has undergone a solid organ transplant and requires valganciclovir for CMV prophylaxis medical practitioner 3 Patient has undergone a lung transplant The donor was cytomegalovirus positive and the patient is cytomegalovirus negative The recipient is cytomegalovirus positive medical practitioner 6 Patient is immunocompromised Patient has cytomegalovirus syndrome or tissue invasive disease Patient has rapidly rising plasma CMV DNA in absence of disease Patient has cytomegalovirus retinitis medical practitioner HIV Prophylaxis and Treatment Emtricitabine with tenofovir disoproxil fumarate <range>Emtricitabine with tenofovir disoproxil fumarate</range> Patient has confirmed HIV infection medical practitioner Prevention of maternal foetal transmission Treatment of the newborn for up to eight weeks medical practitioner Treatment course to be initiated within 72 hours post exposure Patient has had unprotected receptive anal intercourse with a known HIV positive person Patient has shared intravenous injecting equipment with a known HIV positive person Patient has had non-consensual intercourse and the clinician considers that the risk assessment indicates prophylaxis is required medical practitioner Patient has percutaneous exposure to blood known to be HIV positive medical practitioner Patient has tested HIV negative Patient is male or transgender Patient has sex with men Patient is likely to have multiple episodes of condomless anal intercourse in the next 3 months Patient has had at least one episode of condomless receptive anal intercourse with one or more casual male partners in the last 3 months A diagnosis of rectal chlamydia, rectal gonorrhoea, or infectious syphilis within the last 3 months Patient has used methamphetamine in the last three months Patient has a regular partner who has HIV infection Partner is either not on treatment or has a detectable viral load Condoms have not been consistently used medical practitioner 3 Applicant has an up to date knowledge of the safety issues and is competent to prescribe pre-exposure prophylaxis Patient has undergone testing for HIV, syphilis, and a full STI screen in the previous two weeks Patient has had renal function testing (creatinine, phosphate and urine protein/creatinine ratio) within the last 12 months Patient has received advice regarding the reduction of risk of HIV and sexually transmitted infections and how to reduce those risks Patient has tested HIV negative Patient is male or transgender Patient has sex with men Patient is likely to have multiple episodes of condomless anal intercourse in the next 3 months Patient has had at least one episode of condomless receptive anal intercourse with one or more casual male partners in the last 3 months A diagnosis of rectal chlamydia, rectal gonorrhoea, or infectious syphilis within the last 3 months Patient has used methamphetamine in the last three months Patient has a regular partner who has HIV infection Partner is either not on treatment or has a detectable viral load Condoms have not been consistently used medical practitioner 3 Influenza Oseltamivir

Note: The restriction on the use of oseltamivir to hospitalised patients means that supply into the community for a new course is not permitted. Supply of a part original pack on discharge where initiated as a hospital inpatient is permitted.

<range>Oseltamivir</range> Only for hospitalised patient with known or suspected influenza For prophylaxis of influenza in hospitalised patients as part of a DHB hospital approved infections control plan medical practitioner Zanamivir

Note: The restriction on the use of zanamivir to hospitalised patients means that supply into the community for a new course is not permitted. Supply of a part original pack on discharge where initiated as a hospital inpatient is permitted.

Powder for inhalation 5 mg <range>Zanamivir - Powder for inhalation 5 mg</range> Only for hospitalised patient with known or suspected influenza For prophylaxis of influenza in hospitalised patients as part of a DHB hospital approved infections control plan medical practitioner Immune Modulators Immune Modulators Interferon alfa-2a Inj 3 m iu prefilled syringe Any 0 Inj 6 m iu prefilled syringe Any 0 Inj 9 m iu prefilled syringe Any 0 Interferon alfa-2b Inj 18 m iu, 1.2 ml multidose pen Any 0 Inj 30 m iu, 1.2 ml multidose pen Any 0 Inj 60 m iu, 1.2 ml multidose pen Any 0 Interferon gamma <range>Interferon gamma</range> Patient has chronic granulomatous disease and requires interferon gamma medical practitioner Pegylated interferon alfa-2a <range>Pegylated interferon alfa-2a</range> Patient has chronic hepatitis C, genotype 1, 4, 5 or 6 infection Patient has chronic hepatitis C and is co-infected with HIV Patient has chronic hepatitis C genotype 2 or 3 and has received a liver transplant medical practitioner 48

Consider stopping treatment if there is absence of a virological response (defined as at least a 2-log reduction in viral load) following 12 weeks of treatment since this is predictive of treatment failure.

Consider reducing treatment to 24 weeks if serum HCV RNA level at Week 4 is undetectable by sensitive PCR assay (less than 50IU/ml) AND Baseline serum HCV RNA is less than 400,000IU/ml.

 Patient has chronic hepatitis C, genotype 1 Patient has had previous treatment with pegylated interferon and ribavirin Patient has responder relapsed Patient was a partial responder Patient is to be treated in combination with boceprevir gastroenterologist infectious disease specialist general physician 48 Patient has chronic hepatitis C, genotype 1 Patient has had previous treatment with pegylated interferon and ribavirin Patient has responder relapsed Patient was a partial responder Patient received interferon treatment prior to 2004 Patient is to be treated in combination with boceprevir gastroenterologist infectious disease specialist general physician 48 Patient has chronic hepatitis C, genotype 2 or 3 infection medical practitioner 6 Patient has confirmed Hepatitis B infection (HBsAg positive for more than 6 months) Patient is Hepatitis B treatment-naive ALT > 2 times Upper Limit of Normal HBV DNA < 10 log10 IU/ml HBeAg positive Serum HBV DNA greater than or equal to 2,000 units/ml and significant fibrosis (greater than or equal to Metavir Stage F2 or moderate fibrosis) Compensated liver disease No continuing alcohol abuse or intravenous drug use Not co-infected with HCV, HIV or HDV Neither ALT nor AST > 10 times upper limit of normal No history of hypersensitivity or contraindications to pegylated interferon gastroenterologist infectious disease specialist general physician 48

Approved dose is 180 mcg once weekly.

The recommended dose of Pegylated Interferon alfa-2a is 180 mcg once weekly.

In patients with renal insufficiency (calculated creatinine clearance less than 50ml/min), Pegylated Interferon alfa-2a dose should be reduced to 135 mcg once weekly.

In patients with neutropaenia and thrombocytopaenia, dose should be reduced in accordance with the datasheet guidelines.

Pegylated Interferon alfa-2a is not approved for use in children.

 Musculoskeletal System Anticholinesterases Anticholinesterases Edrophonium chloride <range>Edrophonium chloride</range> For the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis medical practitioner Neostigmine metilsulfate with glycopyrronium bromide Inj 2.5 mg with glycopyrronium bromide 0.5 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Max Health 10 20.90 Neostigmine metilsulfate Inj 2.5 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule AstraZeneca 50 98.00 Pyridostigmine bromide Tab 60 mg Mestinon 100 42.79 Antirheumatoid Agents Antirheumatoid Agents Sodium aurothiomalate Inj 10 mg in 0.5 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 20 mg in 0.5 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 50 mg in 0.5 ml ampoule Any 0 Penicillamine Tab 250 mg D-Penamine 100 110.12 Tab 125 mg D-Penamine 100 67.23 Leflunomide Tab 10 mg Apo-Leflunomide 30 2.90 Tab 20 mg Apo-Leflunomide 30 2.90 Hydroxychloroquine Tab 200 mg Plaquenil 100 7.98 Drugs Affecting Bone Metabolism Bisphosphonates Risedronate sodium Tab 35 mg Risedronate Sandoz 4 3.80 Pamidronate disodium Inj 3 mg per ml, 10 ml vial Pamisol 1 5.98 Inj 6 mg per ml, 10 ml vial Pamisol 1 15.02 Inj 9 mg per ml, 10 ml vial Pamisol 1 17.05 Zoledronic acid Inj 5 mg per 100 ml, vial <range>Zoledronic acid Inj 5 mg per 100 ml, vial</range> Patient has been diagnosed with an inherited bone fragility disorder (e.g. osteogenesis imperfecta) any specialist History of one significant osteoporotic fracture demonstrated radiologically and documented bone mineral density (BMD) greater than or equal to 2.5 standard deviations below the mean normal value in young adults (i.e. T-Score less than or equal to -2.5) (see Note) History of one significant osteoporotic fracture demonstrated radiologically, and either the patient is elderly, or densitometry scanning cannot be performed because of major logistical, technical or pathophysiological reasons. It is unlikely that this provision would apply to many patients under 75 years of age History of two significant osteoporotic fractures demonstrated radiologically Documented T-Score greater than or equal to -3.0 (see Note) A 10-year risk of hip fracture greater than or equal to 3%, calculated using a published risk assessment algorithm (e.g. FRAX or Garvan) which incorporates BMD measurements (see Note) Patient has had a Special Authority approval for alendronate (Underlying cause - Osteoporosis) or raloxifene The patient will not be prescribed more than 5 mg of zoledronic acid in a 12-month period any specialist 3 The patient is receiving systemic glucocorticosteroid therapy (greater than or equal to 5 mg per day prednisone equivalents) and has already received or is expected to receive therapy for at least three months The patient has documented BMD greater than or equal to 1.5 standard deviations below the mean normal value in young adults (i.e. T-Score less than or equal to -1.5) (see Note) The patient has a history of one significant osteoporotic fracture demonstrated radiologically The patient has had a Special Authority approval for alendronate (Underlying cause - glucocorticosteroid therapy) or raloxifene; and The patient will not be prescribed more than 5 mg of zoledronic acid in the 12-month approval period any specialist 12 The patient is continuing systemic glucocorticosteriod therapy (greater than or equal to 5 mg per day prednisone equivalents) The patient will not be prescribed more than 5 mg of zoledronic acid in the 12-month approval period any specialist 12 Paget's disease Bone or articular pain Bone deformity Bone, articular or neurological complications Asymptomatic disease, but risk of complications Preparation for orthopaedic surgery The patient will not be prescribed more than 5 mg of zoledronic acid in the 12-month approval period any specialist 12 The patient has relapsed (based on increases in serum alkaline phosphatase) The patient's serum alkaline phosphatase has not normalised following previous treatment with zoledronic acid Symptomatic disease (prescriber determined) The patient will not be prescribed more than 5 mg of zoledronic acid in the 12-month approval period any specialist 12

  1. BMD (including BMD used to derive T-Score) must be measured using dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA). Quantitative ultrasound and quantitative computed tomography (QCT) are not acceptable.

  2. Evidence suggests that patients aged 75 years and over who have a history of significant osteoporotic fracture demonstrated radiologically are very likely to have a T-Score less than or equal to -2.5 and, therefore, do not require BMD measurement for treatment with bisphosphonates.

  3. Osteoporotic fractures are the incident events for severe (established) osteoporosis and can be defined using the WHO definitions of osteoporosis and fragility fracture. The WHO defines severe (established) osteoporosis as a T-score below -2.5 with one or more associated fragility fractures. Fragility fractures are fractures that occur as a result of mechanical forces that would not ordinarily cause fracture (minimal trauma). The WHO has quantified this as forces equivalent to a fall from a standing height or less.

  4. A vertebral fracture is defined as a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of a vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body.

 Etidronate disodium Tab 200 mg Arrow-Etidronate 100 13.50 Alendronate sodium Tab 70 mg <range>Alendronate sodium - Tab 70 mg</range> History of one significant osteoporotic fracture demonstrated radiologically and documented bone mineral density (BMD) greater than or equal to 2.5 standard deviations below the mean normal value in young adults (i.e. T-Score less than or equal to -2.5) (see Note) History of one significant osteoporotic fracture demonstrated radiologically, and either the patient is elderly, or densitometry scanning cannot be performed because of major logistical, technical or pathophysiological reasons. It is unlikely that this provision would apply to many patients under 75 years of age History of two significant osteoporotic fractures demonstrated radiologically Documented T-Score less than or equal to -3.0 (see Note) A 10-year risk of hip fracture greater than or equal to 3%, calculated using a published risk assessment algorithm (e.g. FRAX or Garvan) which incorporates BMD measurements (see Note) Patient has had a Special Authority approval for zoledronic acid (underlying cause – osteoporosis) or raloxifene medical practitioner The patient is receiving systemic glucocorticosteroid therapy (greater than or equal to 5 mg per day prednisone equivalents) and has already received or is expected to receive therapy for at least three months The patient has documented BMD greater than or equal to 1.5 standard deviations below the mean normal value in young adults (i.e. T-Score less than or equal to -1.5) (see Note) The patient has a history of one significant osteoporotic fracture demonstrated radiologically The patient has had a Special Authority approval for zoledronic acid (glucocorticosteroid therapy) or raloxifene medical practitioner 12 The patient is continuing systemic glucocorticosteriod therapy (greater than or equal to 5 mg per day prednisone equivalents) medical practitioner 12

  1. BMD (including BMD used to derive T-Score) must be measured using dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA). Quantitative ultrasound and quantitative computed tomography (QCT) are not acceptable.

  2. Evidence suggests that patients aged 75 years and over who have a history of significant osteoporotic fracture demonstrated radiologically are very likely to have a T-Score less than or equal to -2.5 and, therefore, do not require BMD measurement for treatment with bisphosphonates.

  3. Osteoporotic fractures are the incident events for severe (established) osteoporosis, and can be defined using the WHO definitions of osteoporosis and fragility fracture. The WHO defines severe (established) osteoporosis as a T-score below -2.5 with one or more associated fragility fractures. Fragility fractures are fractures that occur as a result of mechanical forces that would not ordinarily cause fracture (minimal trauma). The WHO has quantified this as forces equivalent to a fall from a standing height or less.

  4. A vertebral fracture is defined as a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of a vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body.

 Tab 40 mg <range>Alendronate sodium - Tab 40 mg</range> Paget's disease Bone or articular pain Bone deformity Bone, articular or neurological complications Asymptomatic disease, but risk of complications due to site (base of skull, spine, long bones of lower limbs) Preparation for orthopaedic surgery medical practitioner Alendronate sodium with colecalciferol <range>Alendronate sodium with cholecalciferol</range> History of one significant osteoporotic fracture demonstrated radiologically and documented bone mineral density (BMD) greater than or equal to 2.5 standard deviations below the mean normal value in young adults (i.e. T-Score less than or equal to -2.5) (see Note) History of one significant osteoporotic fracture demonstrated radiologically, and either the patient is elderly, or densitometry scanning cannot be performed because of major logistical, technical or pathophysiological reasons. It is unlikely that this provision would apply to many patients under 75 years of age History of two significant osteoporotic fractures demonstrated radiologically Documented T-Score less than or equal to -3.0 (see Note) A 10-year risk of hip fracture greater than or equal to 3%, calculated using a published risk assessment algorithm (e.g. FRAX or Garvan) which incorporates BMD measurements (see Note) Patient has had a Special Authority approval for zoledronic acid (underlying cause – osteoporosis) or raloxifene medical practitioner The patient is receiving systemic glucocorticosteroid therapy (greater than or equal to 5 mg per day prednisone equivalents) and has already received or is expected to receive therapy for at least three months The patient has documented BMD greater than or equal to 1.5 standard deviations below the mean normal value in young adults (i.e. T-Score less than or equal to -1.5) (see Note) The patient has a history of one significant osteoporotic fracture demonstrated radiologically The patient has had a Special Authority approval for zoledronic acid (glucocorticosteroid therapy) or raloxifene medical practitioner 12 The patient is continuing systemic glucocorticosteriod therapy (greater than or equal to 5 mg per day prednisone equivalents) medical practitioner 12

  1. BMD (including BMD used to derive T-Score) must be measured using dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA). Quantitative ultrasound and quantitative computed tomography (QCT) are not acceptable.

  2. Evidence suggests that patients aged 75 years and over who have a history of significant osteoporotic fracture demonstrated radiologically are very likely to have a T-Score greater than or equal to -2.5 and, therefore, do not require BMD measurement for treatment with bisphosphonates.

  3. Osteoporotic fractures are the incident events for severe (established) osteoporosis, and can be defined using the WHO definitions of osteoporosis and fragility fracture. The WHO defines severe (established) osteoporosis as a T-score below -2.5 with one or more associated fragility fractures. Fragility fractures are fractures that occur as a result of mechanical forces that would not ordinarily cause fracture (minimal trauma). The WHO has quantified this as forces equivalent to a fall from a standing height or less.

  4. A vertebral fracture is defined as a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of a vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body.

 Other Drugs Affecting Bone Metabolism Denosumab <range>Densosumab</range> The patient has severe, established osteoporosis The patient is female and postmenopausal The patient is male or non-binary History of one significant osteoporotic fracture demonstrated radiologically and documented bone mineral density (BMD) greater than or equal to 2.5 standard deviations below the mean normal value in young adults (i.e. T-Score less than or equal to -2.5) (see Note) History of one significant osteoporotic fracture demonstrated radiologically, and either the patient is elderly, or densitometry scanning cannot be performed because of major logistical, technical or pathophysiological reasons History of two significant osteoporotic fractures demonstrated radiologically Documented T-Score less than or equal to -3.0 (see Note) A 10-year risk of hip fracture greater than or equal to 3%, calculated using a published risk assessment algorithm (e.g. FRAX or Garvan) which incorporates BMD measurements (see Note) Patient has had a Special Authority approval for alendronate (Underlying cause - Osteoporosis) or raloxifene Zoledronic acid is contraindicated because the patient’s creatinine clearance is less than 35 mL/min The patient has experienced at least one symptomatic new fracture after at least 12 months’ continuous therapy with a funded antiresorptive agent at adequate doses (see Notes) The patient must not receive concomitant treatment with any other funded antiresorptive agent for this condition or teriparatide medical practitioner

  1. BMD (including BMD used to derive T-Score) must be measured using dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA). Quantitative ultrasound and quantitative computed tomography (QCT) are not acceptable.

  2. Evidence suggests that patients aged 75 years and over who have a history of significant osteoporotic fracture demonstrated radiologically are very likely to have a T-Score less than or equal to -2.5 and, therefore, do not require BMD measurement for treatment with denosumab.

  3. Osteoporotic fractures are the incident events for severe (established) osteoporosis and can be defined using the WHO definitions of osteoporosis and fragility fracture. The WHO defines severe (established) osteoporosis as a T-score below -2.5 with one or more associated fragility fractures. Fragility fractures are fractures that occur as a result of mechanical forces that would not ordinarily cause fracture (minimal trauma). The WHO has quantified this as forces equivalent to a fall from a standing height or less.

  4. A vertebral fracture is defined as a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of a vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body.

  5. Antiresorptive agents and their adequate doses for the purposes of this Special Authority are defined as: risedronate sodium tab 35 mg once weekly; alendronate sodium tab 70 mg or tab 70 mg with cholecalciferol 5,600 iu once weekly; raloxifene hydrochloride tab 60 mg once daily. If an intolerance of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal develops during the use of one antiresorptive agent, an alternate antiresorptive agent must be trialled so that the patient achieves the minimum requirement of 12 months’ continuous therapy.

 Raloxifene <range>Raloxifene</range> History of one significant osteoporotic fracture demonstrated radiologically and documented bone mineral density (BMD) greater than or equal to 2.5 standard deviations below the mean normal value in young adults (i.e. T-Score less than or equal to -2.5) (see Notes) History of one significant osteoporotic fracture demonstrated radiologically, and either the patient is elderly, or densitometry scanning cannot be performed because of major logistical, technical or pathophysiological reasons. It is unlikely that this provision would apply to many patients under 75 years of age History of two significant osteoporotic fractures demonstrated radiologically Documented T-Score greater than or equal to -3.0 (see Notes) A 10-year risk of hip fracture greater than or equal to 3%, calculated using a published risk assessment algorithm (e.g. FRAX or Garvan) which incorporates BMD measurements (see Notes) Patient has had a prior Special Authority approval for zoledronic acid (Underlying cause - Osteoporosis) or alendronate (Underlying cause - Osteoporosis) medical practitioner

  1. BMD (including BMD used to derive T-Score) must be measured using dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA). Quantitative ultrasound and quantitative computed tomography (QCT) are not acceptable.

  2. Evidence suggests that patients aged 75 years and over who have a history of significant osteoporotic fracture demonstrated radiologically are very likely to have a T-Score less than or equal to -2.5 and, therefore, do not require BMD measurement for raloxifene funding.

  3. Osteoporotic fractures are the incident events for severe (established) osteoporosis, and can be defined using the WHO definitions of osteoporosis and fragility fracture. The WHO defines severe (established) osteoporosis as a T-score below -2.5 with one or more associated fragility fractures. Fragility fractures are fractures that occur as a result of mechanical forces that would not ordinarily cause fracture (minimal trauma). The WHO has quantified this as forces equivalent to a fall from a standing height or less.

  4. A vertebral fracture is defined as a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of a vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body.

 Teriparatide <range>Teriparatide</range> The patient has severe, established osteoporosis The patient has a documented T-score less than or equal to -3.0 (see Notes) The patient has had two or more fractures due to minimal trauma The patient has experienced at least one symptomatic new fracture after at least 12 months' continuous therapy with a funded antiresorptive agent at adequate doses (see Notes) medical practitioner 18

  1. The bone mineral density (BMD) measurement used to derive the T-score must be made using dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA). Quantitative ultrasound and quantitative computed tomography (QCT) are not acceptable

  2. Antiresorptive agents and their adequate doses for the purposes of this restriction are defined as: alendronate sodium tab 70 mg or tab 70 mg with colecalciferol 5,600 iu once weekly; raloxifene hydrochloride tab 60 mg once daily; zoledronic acid 5 mg per year. If an intolerance of a severity necessitating permanent treatment withdrawal develops during the use of one antiresorptive agent, an alternate antiresorptive agent must be trialled so that the patient achieves the minimum requirement of 12 months' continuous therapy.

  3. A vertebral fracture is defined as a 20% or greater reduction in height of the anterior or mid portion of a vertebral body relative to the posterior height of that body, or a 20% or greater reduction in any of these heights compared to the vertebral body above or below the affected vertebral body.

 Enzymes Enzymes Hyaluronidase Inj 1,500 iu ampoule Any 0 Hyperuricaemia and Antigout Hyperuricaemia and Antigout Probenecid Tab 500 mg Any 0 Rasburicase <range>Rasburicase</range> No patient criteria haematologist Benzbromarone <range>Benzbromarone</range> Patient has been diagnosed with gout The patient has a serum urate level greater than 0.36 mmol/l despite treatment with allopurinol at doses of at least 600 mg/day and addition of probenecid at doses of up to 2 g per day or maximum tolerated dose The patient has experienced intolerable side effects from allopurinol such that treatment discontinuation is required and serum urate remains greater than 0.36 mmol/l despite use of probenecid at doses of up to 2 g per day or maximum tolerated dose The patient has renal impairment such that probenecid is contraindicated or likely to be ineffective and serum urate remains greater than 0.36 mmol/l despite optimal treatment with allopurinol (see Note) The patient has a rate of creatinine clearance greater than or equal to 20 ml/min The patient is taking azathioprine and requires urate-lowering therapy Allopurinol is contraindicated Appropriate doses of probenecid are ineffective or probenecid cannot be used due to reduced renal function The patient is receiving monthly liver function tests any specialist

Benzbromarone has been associated with potentially fatal hepatotoxicity. In chronic renal insufficiency, particularly when the glomerular filtration rate is 30 ml/minute or less, probenecid may not be effective. Optimal treatment with allopurinol in patients with renal impairment is defined as treatment to the creatinine clearance-adjusted dose of allopurinol then, if serum urate remains greater than 0.36 mmol/l, a gradual increase of the dose of allopurinol to 600 mg or the maximum tolerated dose.

The New Zealand Rheumatology Association has developed information for prescribers which can be accessed from its website at www.rheumatology.org.nz/home/resources-2/

 Febuxostat <range>Febuxostat</range> Patient has been diagnosed with gout The patient has a serum urate level greater than 0.36 mmol/l despite treatment with allopurinol at doses of at least 600 mg/day and addition of probenecid at doses of up to 2 g per day or maximum tolerated dose The patient has experienced intolerable side effects from allopurinol such that treatment discontinuation is required and serum urate remains greater than 0.36 mmol/l despite use of probenecid at doses of up to 2 g per day or maximum tolerated dose The patient has renal impairment such that probenecid is contraindicated or likely to be ineffective and serum urate remains greater than 0.36 mmol/l despite optimal treatment with allopurinol (see Note) any specialist

In chronic renal insufficiency, particularly when the glomerular filtration rate is 30 ml/minute or less, probenecid may not be effective. The efficacy and safety of febuxostat have not been fully evaluated in patients with severe renal impairment (creatinine clearance less than 30 ml/minute). No dosage adjustment of febuxostat is necessary in patients with mild or moderate renal impairment. Optimal treatment with allopurinol in patients with renal impairment is defined as treatment to the creatinine clearance-adjusted dose of allopurinol then, if serum urate remains greater than 0.36 mmol/l, a gradual increase of the dose of allopurinol to 600 mg or the maximum tolerated dose.

 Allopurinol Tab 100 mg DP-Allopurinol 500 4.54 Tab 300 mg DP-Allopurinol 500 10.35 Colchicine Tab 500 mcg Colgout 100 10.08 Muscle Relaxants and Related Agents Muscle Relaxants and Related Agents Dantrolene Cap 25 mg Dantrium 100 65.00 Cap 50 mg Dantrium 100 77.00 Inj 20 mg vial Dantrium IV 6 800.00 Orphenadrine citrate Tab 100 mg Norflex 100 18.54 Vecuronium bromide Inj 10 mg vial Any 0 Atracurium besylate Inj 10 mg per ml, 2.5 ml ampoule Tracrium 5 10.00 Inj 10 mg per ml, 5 ml ampoule Tracrium 5 12.50 Mivacurium chloride Inj 2 mg per ml, 5 ml ampoule Mivacron 5 33.92 Inj 2 mg per ml, 10 ml ampoule Mivacron 5 67.17 Pancuronium bromide Inj 2 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule AstraZeneca 50 260.00 Suxamethonium chloride Inj 50 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule AstraZeneca 50 78.00 Baclofen Inj 0.05 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Lioresal Intrathecal 1 11.55 Oral liq 1 mg per ml Any 0 Tab 10 mg Pacifen 100 4.20 Inj 2 mg per ml, 5 ml ampoule Lioresal Intrathecal 1 209.29 Clostridium botulinum type A toxin Inj 100 u vial Botox 1 467.50 Inj 500 u vial Dysport 2 1295.00 Inj 300 u vial Dysport 1 388.50 Rocuronium bromide Inj 10 mg per ml, 5 ml vial DBL Rocuronium Bromide 10 25.95 Reversers of Neuromuscular Blockade Sugammadex <range>Sugammadex</range> Patient requires reversal of profound neuromuscular blockade following rapid sequence induction that has been undertaken using rocuronium (i.e. suxamethonium is contraindicated or undesirable) Severe neuromuscular degenerative disease where the use of neuromuscular blockade is required Patient has an unexpectedly difficult airway that cannot be intubated and requires a rapid reversal of anaesthesia and neuromuscular blockade The duration of the patient's surgery is unexpectedly short Neostigmine or a neostigmine/anticholinergic combination is contraindicated (for example the patient has ischaemic heart disease, morbid obesity or COPD) Patient has a partial residual block after conventional reversal medical practitioner Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs Indomethacin Cap 25 mg Any 0 Cap 50 mg Any 0 Cap long-acting 75 mg Any 0 Inj 1 mg vial Any 0 Suppos 100 mg Any 0 Mefenamic acid

For continuation only

Cap 250 mg Any 0 Meloxicam <range>Meloxicam</range> Haemophilic arthropathy The patient has moderate to severe haemophilia with less than or equal to 5% of normal circulating functional clotting factor Pain and inflammation associated with haemophilic arthropathy is inadequately controlled by alternative funded treatment options, or alternative funded treatment options are contraindicated For preoperative and/or postoperative use for a total of up to 8 days' use medical practitioner Sulindac Tab 100 mg Any 0 Tab 200 mg Any 0 Celecoxib

Note - The DV limit of 1% applies to the celecoxib chemical rather than each individual line item.

Cap 100 mg Celecoxib Pfizer 60 3.63 Cap 200 mg Celecoxib Pfizer 30 2.30 Etoricoxib <range>Etoricoxib</range> For in-vivo investigation of allergy only medical practitioner Diclofenac sodium Tab 50 mg dispersible Voltaren D 20 1.50 Suppos 12.5 mg Voltaren 10 2.04 Suppos 25 mg Voltaren 10 2.44 Suppos 50 mg Voltaren 10 4.22 Suppos 100 mg Voltaren 10 7.00 Tab long-acting 75 mg Apo-Diclo SR 500 22.80 Tab long-acting 100 mg Apo-Diclo SR 500 25.15 Inj 25 mg per ml, 3 ml ampoule Voltaren 5 13.20 Tab EC 25 mg Diclofenac Sandoz 50 1.23 Tab EC 50 mg Diclofenac Sandoz 50 1.23 Ibuprofen Inj 5 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Any 0 Tab 200 mg Relieve 1000 11.71 Tab 400 mg

For continuation only

Any 0 Tab 600 mg

For continuation only

Any 0 Oral liq 20 mg per ml Fenpaed 200 2.39 Tab long-acting 800 mg Brufen SR 30 7.99 30 7.99 Inj 10 mg per ml, 2 ml vial Any 0 Naproxen Tab long-acting 1 g Naprosyn SR 1000 28 8.21 Tab long-acting 750 mg Naprosyn SR 750 28 6.16 Tab 250 mg Noflam 250 500 32.69 Tab 500 mg Noflam 500 250 22.19 Tenoxicam Tab 20 mg Tilcotil 100 10.95 Inj 20 mg vial AFT 1 9.95 Ketoprofen Cap long-acting 200 mg Oruvail SR 28 12.07 Parecoxib Inj 40 mg vial Dynastat 10 100.00 Topical Products for Joint and Muscular Pain Topical Products for Joint and Muscular Pain Capsaicin <range>Capsaicin</range> Patient has osteoarthritis that is not responsive to paracetamol and oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are contraindicated medical practitioner Nervous System Agents for Parkinsonism and Related Disorders Agents for Essential Tremor, Chorea and Related Disorders Riluzole <range>Riluzole</range> The patient has amyotrophic lateral sclerosis with disease duration of 5 years or less The patient has at least 60 percent of predicted forced vital capacity within 2 months prior to the initial application The patient has not undergone a tracheostomy The patient has not experienced respiratory failure The patient is ambulatory The patient is able to use upper limbs The patient is able to swallow neurologist respiratory specialist 6 The patient has not undergone a tracheostomy The patient has not experienced respiratory failure The patient is ambulatory The patient is able to use upper limbs The patient is able to swallow medical practitioner 18 Tetrabenazine Tab 25 mg Motetis 112 91.10 Anticholinergics Procyclidine hydrochloride Tab 5 mg Any 0 Benzatropine mesylate Tab 2 mg Benztrop 60 7.99 Inj 1 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Cogentin 5 95.00 Dopamine Agonists and Related Agents Bromocriptine Cap 5 mg Any 0 Tab 2.5 mg Any 0 Selegiline hydrochloride Tab 5 mg Any 0 Amantadine hydrochloride Cap 100 mg Symmetrel 60 38.24 Entacapone Tab 200 mg Entapone 100 22.00 Ropinirole hydrochloride Tab 1 mg Apo-Ropinirole 100 5.00 Tab 2 mg Apo-Ropinirole 100 7.72 Tab 5 mg Apo-Ropinirole 100 16.51 Tab 0.25 mg Apo-Ropinirole 100 2.78 Apomorphine hydrochloride Inj 10 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 10 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Movapo 5 119.00 Levodopa with benserazide Cap 50 mg with benserazide 12.5 mg Madopar 62.5 100 13.75 Tab dispersible 50 mg with benserazide 12.5 mg Madopar Rapid 100 13.25 Cap 100 mg with benserazide 25 mg Madopar 125 100 15.80 Cap long-acting 100 mg with benserazide 25 mg Madopar HBS 100 22.85 Cap 200 mg with benserazide 50 mg Madopar 250 100 26.25 Levodopa with carbidopa Tab 100 mg with carbidopa 25 mg Sinemet 100 17.97 Tab 250 mg with carbidopa 25 mg Sinemet 100 32.67 Tab long-acting 200 mg with carbidopa 50 mg Sinemet CR 100 37.15 Tolcapone Tab 100 mg Tasmar 100 132.50 Pramipexole hydrochloride Tab 0.25 mg Ramipex 100 7.20 Tab 1 mg Ramipex 100 24.39 Anaesthetics General Anaesthetics Dexmedetomidine Inj 100 mcg per ml, 2 ml vial Precedex 5 357.00 Etomidate Inj 2 mg per ml, 10 ml ampoule Any 0 Ketamine Inj 1 mg per ml, 100 ml bag Biomed 1 27.00 Inj 10 mg per ml, 10 ml syringe Biomed 1 14.00 Inj 100 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Ketamine-Claris 5 47.05 Methohexital sodium Inj 10 mg per ml, 50 ml vial Any 0 Thiopental [Thiopentone] sodium Inj 500 mg ampoule Any 0 Isoflurane Soln for inhalation 100%, 250 ml bottle Aerrane 6 1020.00 Propofol Inj 10 mg per ml, 100 ml vial Fresofol 1% MCT/LCT 10 49.00 Inj 10 mg per ml, 20 ml vial Provive MCT-LCT 1% 5 5.27 Inj 10 mg per ml, 50 ml vial Fresofol 1% MCT/LCT 10 24.50 Sevoflurane Soln for inhalation 100%, 250 ml bottle Baxter 6 840.00 Desflurane Soln for inhalation 100%, 240 ml bottle Suprane 6 1350.00 Local Anaesthetics Articaine hydrochloride with adrenaline Inj 4% with adrenaline 1:100,000, 2.2 ml dental cartridge Any 0 Inj 4% with adrenaline 1:100,000, 1.7 ml dental cartridge Any 0 Inj 4% with adrenaline 1:200,000, 1.7 ml dental cartridge Any 0 Inj 4% with adrenaline 1:200,000, 2.2 ml dental cartridge Any 0 Bupivacaine hydrochloride with glucose Inj 0.5% with glucose 8%, 4 ml ampoule Marcain Heavy 5 38.00 Cocaine hydrochloride with adrenaline Paste 15% with adrenaline 0.06% Any 0 Paste 25% with adrenaline 0.06% Any 0 Ethyl chloride Spray 100% Any 0 Lidocaine [Lignocaine] hydrochloride with adrenaline and tetracaine hydrochloride Soln 4% with adrenaline 0.1% and tetracaine hydrochloride 0.5%, 5 ml syringe Topicaine 1 17.50 Lidocaine [Lignocaine] hydrochloride with phenylephrine hydrochloride Nasal spray 5% with phenylephrine hydrochloride 0.5% Any 0 Mepivacaine hydrochloride Inj 3%, 1.8 ml dental cartridge Scandonest 3% 50 43.60 Inj 3%, 2.2 ml dental cartridge Scandonest 3% 50 43.60 Prilocaine hydrochloride with felypressin Inj 3% with felypressin 0.03 iu per ml, 1.8 ml dental cartridge Any 0 Inj 3% with felypressin 0.03 iu per ml, 2.2 ml dental cartridge Any 0 Tetracaine [Amethocaine] hydrochloride Gel 4% Any 0 Benzocaine Gel 20% Any 0 Articaine hydrochloride Inj 1% Any 0 1 Lidocaine [Lignocaine] Crm 4% LMX4 30 27.00 5 5.40 Bupivacaine hydrochloride Inj 2.5 mg per ml, 20 ml ampoule sterile pack Marcain 5 29.20 Inj 5 mg per ml, 10 ml ampoule sterile pack Marcain 5 20.25 Inj 5 mg per ml, 4 ml ampoule Marcain Isobaric 5 50.00 Inj 1.25 mg per ml, 100 ml bag Any 0 Inj 1.25 mg per ml, 200 ml bag Any 0 Inj 2.5 mg per ml, 100 ml bag Marcain 5 150.00 Inj 2.5 mg per ml, 200 ml bag Any 0 Inj 5 mg per ml, 20 ml ampoule sterile pack Marcain 5 20.70 Inj 2.5 mg per ml, 20 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 5 mg per ml, 20 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 1.25 mg per ml, 500 ml bag Any 0 Bupivacaine hydrochloride with adrenaline Inj 5 mg per ml with adrenaline 1:200,000, 20 ml vial Marcain with Adrenaline 5 115.00 Inj 2.5 mg per ml with adrenaline 1:400,000, 20 ml vial Marcain with Adrenaline 5 135.00 Bupivacaine hydrochloride with fentanyl Inj 1.25 mg with fentanyl 2 mcg per ml, 100 ml bag Bupafen 10 210.00 Inj 1.25 mg with fentanyl 2 mcg per ml, 200 ml bag Bupafen 10 210.00 Inj 1.25 mg with fentanyl 2 mcg per ml, 15 ml syringe Biomed 10 72.00 Inj 1.25 mg with fentanyl 2 mcg per ml, 20 ml syringe Biomed 10 92.00 Inj 0.625 mg with fentanyl 2 mcg per ml, 100 ml bag Any 0 Inj 1.25 mg with fentanyl 2 mcg per ml, 100 ml syringe Any 0 Inj 1.25 mg with fentanyl 2 mcg per ml, 50 ml syringe Any 0 Inj 0.625 mg with fentanyl 2 mcg per ml, 200 ml bag Any 0 Lidocaine [Lignocaine] with prilocaine Crm 2.5% with prilocaine 2.5%, 5 g EMLA 5 45.00 Patch 25 mcg with prilocaine 25 mcg EMLA 20 115.00 Crm 2.5% with prilocaine 2.5% EMLA 30 45.00 Lidocaine [Lignocaine] hydrochloride Inj 1%, 20 ml ampoule Lidocaine-Claris 1 2.40 Inj 1%, 5 ml ampoule Lidocaine-Claris 25 8.75 Inj 2%, 20 ml ampoule Lidocaine-Claris 1 2.40 Inj 2%, 5 ml ampoule Lidocaine-Claris 25 6.90 Spray 10% Xylocaine 50 75.00 Gel 2% Orion 20 4.87 Gel 2%, 10 ml urethral syringe Pfizer 10 81.50 Cathejell 25 160.00 Soln 4% Any 0 Oral (gel) soln 2% Mucosoothe 200 38.00 Inj 1%, 20 ml ampoule, sterile pack Any 0 Inj 2%, 20 ml ampoule, sterile pack Any 0 Inj 1%, 20 ml vial Lidocaine-Claris 5 12.00 Inj 2%, 20 ml vial Lidocaine-Claris 5 12.00 Lidocaine [Lignocaine] hydrochloride with adrenaline Inj 1% with adrenaline 1:100,000, 5 ml ampoule Xylocaine 10 27.00 Inj 1% with adrenaline 1:200,000, 20 ml vial Xylocaine 5 50.00 Inj 2% with adrenaline 1:200,000, 20 ml vial Xylocaine 5 60.00 Inj 2% with adrenaline 1:80,000, 1.7 ml dental cartridge Any 0 Inj 2% with adrenaline 1:80,000, 1.8 ml dental cartridge Any 0 Inj 2% with adrenaline 1:80,000, 2.2 ml dental cartridge Any 0 Prilocaine hydrochloride Inj 0.5%, 50 ml vial Citanest 5 100.00 Inj 2%, 5 ml ampoule Citanest 10 55.00 Ropivacaine hydrochloride with fentanyl Inj 2 mg with fentanyl 2 mcg per ml, 100 ml bag Naropin 5 198.50 Inj 2 mg with fentanyl 2 mcg per ml, 200 ml bag Naropin 5 270.00 Ropivacaine hydrochloride Inj 10 mg per ml, 10 ml ampoule Ropivacaine Kabi 5 10.55 Inj 2 mg per ml, 100 ml bag Ropivacaine Kabi 5 29.50 Inj 2 mg per ml, 20 ml ampoule Ropivacaine Kabi 5 9.20 Inj 2 mg per ml, 200 ml bag Ropivacaine Kabi 5 39.00 Inj 7.5 mg per ml, 10 ml ampoule Ropivacaine Kabi 5 9.90 Inj 7.5 mg per ml, 20 ml ampoule Ropivacaine Kabi 5 12.15 Inj 10 mg per ml, 20 ml ampoule Ropivacaine Kabi 5 15.80 Inj 2 mg per ml, 10 ml ampoule Ropivacaine Kabi 5 8.80 Cocaine hydrochloride Paste 5% Any 0 Soln 15%, 2 ml syringe Any 0 Soln 4%, 2 ml syringe Biomed 1 25.46 Lidocaine [Lignocaine] hydrochloride with chlorhexidine Gel 2% with chlorhexidine 0.05%, 10 ml urethral syringe Pfizer 10 81.50 Analgesics Non-Opioid Analgesics Aspirin Tab dispersible 300 mg Ethics Aspirin 100 3.90 Nefopam hydrochloride Tab 30 mg Any 0 Sucrose Oral liq 25% Any 0 Methoxyflurane <range>Methoxyflurane</range> Patient is undergoing a painful procedure with an expected duration of less than one hour Only to be used under supervision by a medical practitioner or nurse who is trained in the use of methoxyflurane medical practitioner Paracetamol <range>Paracetamol</range> Intravenous paracetamol is only to be used where other routes are unavailable or impractical, or where there is reduced absorption. The need for IV paracetamol must be re-assessed every 24 hours medical practitioner Capsaicin <range>Capsaicin</range> For post-herpetic neuralgia or diabetic peripheral neuropathy medical practitioner Opioid Analgesics Alfentanil Inj 0.5 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Hameln 10 34.38 Morphine sulphate Inj 1 mg per ml, 10 ml syringe Biomed 5 24.00 Inj 1 mg per ml, 50 ml syringe Biomed 5 50.75 Inj 2 mg per ml, 30 ml syringe Biomed 10 135.00 Inj 1 mg per ml, 2 ml syringe Any 0 Inj 10 mg per ml, 100 mg cassette Any 0 Inj 10 mg per ml, 100 ml bag Any 0 Inj 200 mcg in 0.4 ml syringe Any 0 Inj 300 mcg in 0.3 ml syringe Any 0 Cap long-acting 10 mg m-Eslon 10 1.70 Cap long-acting 30 mg m-Eslon 10 2.50 Cap long-acting 60 mg m-Eslon 10 5.40 Cap long-acting 100 mg m-Eslon 10 6.38 Tab immediate-release 10 mg Sevredol 10 2.80 Tab immediate-release 20 mg Sevredol 10 5.52 Inj 10 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule DBL Morphine Sulphate 5 4.47 Inj 30 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule DBL Morphine Sulphate 5 6.19 Inj 5 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule DBL Morphine Sulphate 5 6.27 Inj 15 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule DBL Morphine Sulphate 5 4.76 Tab long-acting 10 mg Arrow-Morphine LA 10 1.93 Tab long-acting 30 mg Arrow-Morphine LA 10 2.85 Tab long-acting 60 mg Arrow-Morphine LA 10 5.60 Tab long-acting 100 mg Arrow-Morphine LA 10 6.10 Inj 1 mg per ml, 100 ml bag Biomed 5 97.25 Remifentanil Inj 1 mg vial Remifentanil-AFT 5 13.95 Inj 2 mg vial Remifentanil-AFT 5 19.95 Tramadol hydrochloride Inj 10 mg per ml, 100 ml bag Any 0 Cap 50 mg Arrow-Tramadol 100 2.25 Tab sustained-release 100 mg Tramal SR 100 20 1.55 Tab sustained-release 150 mg Tramal SR 150 20 2.10 Tab sustained-release 200 mg Tramal SR 200 20 2.75 Inj 50 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Tramal 50 5 4.50 Inj 50 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Tramal 100 5 4.50 Oral soln 10 mg per ml Any 0 Codeine phosphate Tab 15 mg PSM 100 5.75 Tab 30 mg PSM 100 6.80 Tab 60 mg PSM 100 13.50 Methadone hydrochloride Inj 10 mg per ml, 1 ml vial AFT 10 61.00 Oral liq 2 mg per ml Biodone 200 5.79 Oral liq 5 mg per ml Biodone Forte 200 5.79 Oral liq 10 mg per ml Biodone Extra Forte 200 6.79 Tab 5 mg Methatabs 10 1.85 Morphine tartrate Inj 80 mg per ml, 1.5 ml ampoule DBL Morphine Tartrate 5 42.72 Oxycodone hydrochloride Inj 1 mg per ml, 100 ml bag Any 0 Cap immediate-release 5 mg OxyNorm 20 1.88 Cap immediate-release 10 mg OxyNorm 20 3.32 Cap immediate-release 20 mg OxyNorm 20 5.81 Tab controlled-release 10 mg BNM 20 2.76 Tab controlled-release 20 mg BNM 20 4.72 Tab controlled-release 40 mg BNM 20 7.69 Tab controlled-release 80 mg BNM 20 14.11 Tab controlled-release 5 mg BNM 20 2.63 Oral liq 5 mg per 5 ml OxyNorm 250 11.20 Inj 10 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule OxyNorm 5 7.28 Inj 10 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule OxyNorm 5 14.36 Inj 50 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule OxyNorm 5 30.60 Pethidine hydrochloride Inj 10 mg per ml, 100 ml bag Any 0 Inj 10 mg per ml, 50 ml syringe Any 0 Inj 5 mg per ml, 10 ml syringe Any 0 Inj 5 mg per ml, 100 ml bag Any 0 Inj 50 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule DBL Pethidine Hydrochloride 5 4.98 Inj 50 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule DBL Pethidine Hydrochloride 5 5.12 Tab 50 mg PSM 10 4.46 Morphine hydrochloride Oral liq 1 mg per ml RA-Morph 200 9.28 Oral liq 2 mg per ml RA-Morph 200 16.24 Oral liq 5 mg per ml RA-Morph 200 19.44 Oral liq 10 mg per ml RA-Morph 200 27.74 Dihydrocodeine tartrate Tab long-acting 60 mg DHC Continus 60 9.55 Fentanyl Inj 10 mcg per ml, 10 ml syringe Any 0 Inj 10 mcg per ml, 100 ml bag Biomed 10 210.00 Inj 10 mcg per ml, 50 ml bag Biomed 10 210.00 Inj 10 mcg per ml, 50 ml syringe Biomed 10 165.00 Inj 20 mcg per ml, 100 ml bag Any 0 Inj 20 mcg per ml, 50 ml syringe Biomed 1 18.74 Inj 50 mcg per ml, 10 ml ampoule Boucher and Muir 10 9.41 Inj 50 mcg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Boucher and Muir 10 3.56 Patch 75 mcg per hour Fentanyl Sandoz 5 9.25 Patch 12.5 mcg per hour Fentanyl Sandoz 5 2.95 Patch 25 mcg per hour Fentanyl Sandoz 5 3.66 Patch 50 mcg per hour Fentanyl Sandoz 5 6.65 Patch 100 mcg per hour Fentanyl Sandoz 5 11.40 Paracetamol with codeine Tab paracetamol 500 mg with codeine phosphate 8 mg Paracetamol + Codeine (Relieve) 1000 18.21 Antidepressants Cyclic and Related Agents Doxepin hydrochloride Cap 10 mg Any 0 Cap 25 mg Any 0 Cap 50 mg Any 0 Maprotiline hydrochloride Tab 25 mg Any 0 Tab 75 mg Any 0 Mianserin hydrochloride

For continuation only

Tab 30 mg Any 0 Clomipramine hydrochloride Tab 25 mg Apo-Clomipramine 100 9.46 Tab 10 mg Apo-Clomipramine 100 13.99 Amitriptyline Tab 10 mg Arrow-Amitriptyline 100 1.96 Tab 25 mg Arrow-Amitriptyline 100 1.52 Tab 50 mg Arrow-Amitriptyline 100 2.51 Imipramine hydrochloride Tab 10 mg Tofranil 50 5.48 60 6.58 Tab 25 mg Tofranil 50 8.80 Dosulepin [Dothiepin] hydrochloride Cap 25 mg Dopress 100 6.45 Tab 75 mg Dopress 100 11.19 Nortriptyline hydrochloride Tab 10 mg Norpress 100 3.22 Tab 25 mg Norpress 180 7.08 Monoamine-Oxidase Inhibitors - Non-Selective Phenelzine sulphate Tab 15 mg Any 0 Tranylcypromine sulphate Tab 10 mg Any 0 Monoamine-Oxidase Type A Inhibitors Moclobemide Tab 150 mg Apo-Moclobemide 500 85.10 Tab 300 mg Apo-Moclobemide 100 30.70 Other Antidepressants Venlafaxine Cap 37.5 mg Enlafax XR 84 6.38 Cap 75 mg Enlafax XR 84 8.11 Cap 150 mg Enlafax XR 84 11.16 Mirtazapine Tab 30 mg Apo-Mirtazapine 30 2.63 Tab 45 mg Apo-Mirtazapine 30 3.48 Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors Citalopram hydrobromide Tab 20 mg PSM Citalopram 84 1.52 Fluoxetine hydrochloride Cap 20 mg Arrow-Fluoxetine 90 1.99 Tab dispersible 20 mg, scored Arrow-Fluoxetine 30 2.47 Paroxetine Tab 20 mg Apo-Paroxetine 90 4.02 Escitalopram Tab 10 mg Escitalopram-Apotex 28 1.11 Tab 20 mg Escitalopram-Apotex 28 1.90 Sertraline Tab 50 mg Arrow-Sertraline 90 3.05 Tab 100 mg Arrow-Sertraline 90 5.25 Antiepilepsy Drugs Agents for the Control of Status Epilepticus Paraldehyde Inj 5 ml ampoule Any 0 Phenytoin sodium Inj 50 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Hospira 5 88.63 Inj 50 mg per ml, 5 ml ampoule Hospira 5 133.92 Clonazepam Inj 1 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Rivotril 5 21.00 Diazepam Rectal tubes 5 mg Stesolid 5 33.07 Rectal tubes 10 mg Stesolid 5 40.87 Inj 5 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Hospira 5 11.83 Lorazepam Inj 2 mg vial Any 0 Inj 4 mg per ml, 1 ml vial Any 0 Control of Epilepsy Carbamazepine Oral liq 20 mg per ml Tegretol 250 26.37 Tab 200 mg Tegretol 100 14.53 Tab 400 mg Tegretol 100 34.58 Tab long-acting 200 mg Tegretol CR 100 16.98 Tab long-acting 400 mg Tegretol CR 100 39.17 Clobazam Tab 10 mg Any 0 Ethosuximide Cap 250 mg Zarontin 200 281.75 Oral liq 50 mg per ml Zarontin 200 56.35 Phenytoin Tab 50 mg Any 0 Phenytoin sodium Cap 100 mg Any 0 Cap 30 mg Any 0 Oral liq 6 mg per ml Any 0 Primidone Tab 250 mg Any 0 Sodium valproate Inj 100 mg per ml, 4 ml vial Epilim IV 1 9.98 Oral liq 40 mg per ml Any 0 Tab 100 mg Any 0 Tab EC 200 mg Any 0 Tab EC 500 mg Any 0 Vigabatrin <range>Vigabatrin</range> Patient has infantile spasms Patient has epilepsy Seizures are not adequately controlled with optimal treatment with other antiepilepsy agents Seizures are controlled adequately but the patient has experienced unacceptable side effects from optimal treatment with other antiepilepsy agents Patient is, or will be, receiving regular automated visual field testing (ideally before starting therapy and on a 6-monthly basis thereafter) It is impractical or impossible (due to comorbid conditions) to monitor the patient's visual fields medical practitioner 15

"Optimal treatment with other antiepilepsy agents" is defined as treatment with other antiepilepsy agents which are indicated and clinically appropriate for the patient, given in adequate doses for the patient's age, weight, and other features affecting the pharmacokinetics of the drug with good evidence of compliance.

Vigabatrin is associated with a risk of irreversible visual field defects, which may be asymptomatic in the early stages.

 The patient has demonstrated a significant and sustained improvement in seizure rate or severity and or quality of life Patient is receiving regular automated visual field testing (ideally every 6 months) on an ongoing basis for duration of treatment with vigabatrin It is impractical or impossible (due to comorbid conditions) to monitor the patient’s visual fields medical practitioner

As a guideline, clinical trials have referred to a notional 50% reduction in seizure frequency as an indicator of success with anticonvulsant therapy and have assessed quality of life from the patient’s perspective.

Vigabatrin is associated with a risk of irreversible visual field defects, which may be asymptomatic in the early stages.

 Pregabalin

Note: Pregabalin not to be given in combination with gabapentin

Cap 25 mg Pregabalin Pfizer 56 2.25 Cap 75 mg Pregabalin Pfizer 56 2.65 Cap 150 mg Pregabalin Pfizer 56 4.01 Cap 300 mg Pregabalin Pfizer 56 7.38 Clonazepam Oral drops 2.5 mg per ml Any 0 Gabapentin

Note: Gabapentin not to be given in combination with pregabalin

Cap 100 mg Apo-Gabapentin 100 2.65 Cap 300 mg Apo-Gabapentin 100 4.07 Cap 400 mg Apo-Gabapentin 100 5.64 Lamotrigine Tab dispersible 5 mg Arrow-Lamotrigine 56 15.00 Lamictal 30 9.64 Tab dispersible 25 mg Arrow-Lamotrigine 56 20.40 Lamictal 56 29.09 Logem 56 19.38 Tab dispersible 50 mg Arrow-Lamotrigine 56 34.70 Lamictal 56 47.89 Logem 56 32.97 Tab dispersible 100 mg Arrow-Lamotrigine 56 59.90 Lamictal 56 79.16 Logem 56 56.91 Tab dispersible 2 mg Lamictal 30 6.74 Topiramate Tab 25 mg Topamax 60 26.04 Arrow-Topiramate 60 11.07 Topiramate Actavis 60 11.07 Tab 50 mg Topamax 60 44.26 Arrow-Topiramate 60 18.81 Topiramate Actavis 60 18.81 Tab 100 mg Topamax 60 75.25 Arrow-Topiramate 60 31.99 Topiramate Actavis 60 31.99 Tab 200 mg Topamax 60 129.85 Arrow-Topiramate 60 55.19 Topiramate Actavis 60 55.19 Cap sprinkle 15 mg Topamax 60 20.84 Cap sprinkle 25 mg Topamax 60 26.04 Phenobarbitone Tab 15 mg PSM 500 40.00 Tab 30 mg PSM 500 40.00 Levetiracetam Inj 100 mg per ml, 5 ml vial Levetiracetam-AFT 10 52.68 Tab 250 mg Everet 60 24.03 Tab 500 mg Everet 60 28.71 Tab 750 mg Everet 60 45.23 Tab 1,000 mg Everet 60 59.12 Oral liq 100 mg per ml Levetiracetam-AFT 300 44.78 Lacosamide <range>Lacosamide</range> Patient has partial-onset epilepsy Seizures are not adequately controlled by, or patient has experienced unacceptable side effects from, optimal treatment with all of the following: sodium valproate, topiramate, levetiracetam and any two of carbamazepine, lamotrigine and phenytoin sodium (see Note) medical practitioner 15

"Optimal treatment" is defined as treatment which is indicated and clinically appropriate for the patient, given in adequate doses for the patient's age, weight and other features affecting the pharmacokinetics of the drug with good evidence of compliance. Women of childbearing age are not required to have a trial of sodium valproate.

 Patient has demonstrated a significant and sustained improvement in seizure rate or severity and/or quality of life compared with that prior to starting lacosamide treatment (see Note) medical practitioner

As a guideline, clinical trials have referred to a notional 50% reduction in seizure frequency as an indicator of success with anticonvulsant therapy and have assessed quality of life from the patient's perspective

 Stiripentol <range>Stiripentol</range> Patient has confirmed diagnosis of Dravet syndrome Seizures have been inadequately controlled by appropriate courses of sodium valproate, clobazam and at least two of the following: topiramate, levetiracetam, ketogenic diet paediatric neurologist 6 Patient continues to benefit from treatment as measured by reduced seizure frequency from baseline paediatric neurologist Antimigraine Preparations Acute Migraine Treatment Dihydroergotamine mesylate Inj 1 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Any 0 Ergotamine tartrate with caffeine Tab 1 mg with caffeine 100 mg Any 0 Metoclopramide hydrochloride with paracetamol Tab 5 mg with paracetamol 500 mg Any 0 Sumatriptan Tab 50 mg Apo-Sumatriptan 100 24.44 Tab 100 mg Apo-Sumatriptan 100 46.23 Inj 12 mg per ml, 0.5 ml prefilled pen Clustran 2 42.67 Rizatriptan Tab orodispersible 10 mg Rizamelt 30 5.26 Prophylaxis of Migraine Pizotifen Tab 500 mcg Sandomigran 100 23.21 100 23.21 Antinausea and Vertigo Agents Antinausea and Vertigo Agents Droperidol Inj 2.5 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Droperidol Panpharma 10 35.00 Promethazine theoclate

For continuation only

Tab 25 mg Any 0 Granisetron Inj 1 mg per ml, 3 ml ampoule Deva 1 0.40 Metoclopramide hydrochloride Inj 5 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Pfizer 10 4.50 Oral liq 5 mg per 5 ml Any 0 Tab 10 mg Metoclopramide Actavis 10 100 1.30 Ondansetron Inj 2 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Ondansetron-Claris 5 1.50 Inj 2 mg per ml, 4 ml ampoule Ondansetron Kabi 5 2.20 Tab 4 mg Apo-Ondansetron 50 3.36 Tab 8 mg Apo-Ondansetron 50 4.77 Tab dispersible 4 mg Ondansetron ODT-DRLA 10 0.95 Tab dispersible 8 mg Ondansetron ODT-DRLA 10 1.43 Tropisetron Inj 1 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Tropisetron-AFT 1 8.95 Inj 1 mg per ml, 5 ml ampoule Tropisetron-AFT 1 13.95 Betahistine dihydrochloride Tab 16 mg Vergo 16 84 2.89 Cyclizine lactate Inj 50 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Nausicalm 5 14.95 Hyoscine hydrobromide Patch 1.5 mg <range>Hyoscine hydrobromide - Patch 1.5 mg</range> Control of intractable nausea, vomiting, or inability to swallow saliva in the treatment of malignancy or chronic disease where the patient cannot tolerate or does not adequately respond to oral anti-nausea agents Control of clozapine-induced hypersalivation where trials of at least two other alternative treatments have proven ineffective For treatment of post-operative nausea and vomiting where cyclizine, droperidol and a 5HT3 antagonist have proven ineffective, are not tolerated or are contraindicated medical practitioner Inj 400 mcg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Hospira 5 46.50 Cyclizine hydrochloride Tab 50 mg Nauzene 20 0.59 Prochlorperazine Inj 12.5 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Any 0 Suppos 25 mg Any 0 Tab buccal 3 mg Any 0 Tab 5 mg Nausafix 250 6.35 Aprepitant <range>Aprepitant</range> Patient is undergoing highly emetogenic chemotherapy and/or anthracycline-based chemotherapy for the treatment of malignancy medical practitioner Domperidone Tab 10 mg Prokinex 100 3.20 Antipsychotic Agents General Chlorpromazine hydrochloride Inj 25 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Any 0 Oral liq 10 mg per ml Any 0 Tab 10 mg Any 0 Tab 100 mg Any 0 Tab 25 mg Any 0 Oral liq 20 mg per ml Any 0 Levomepromazine Tab 100 mg Any 0 Tab 25 mg Any 0 Pericyazine Tab 10 mg Any 0 Tab 2.5 mg Any 0 Zuclopenthixol acetate Inj 50 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 50 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Any 0 Levomepromazine hydrochloride Inj 25 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Wockhardt 10 47.89 Clozapine Tab 100 mg Clozaril 50 14.73 100 29.45 Clopine 100 34.65 50 17.33 Tab 25 mg Clozaril 50 5.69 100 11.36 Clopine 100 13.37 50 6.69 Tab 50 mg Clopine 100 17.33 50 8.67 Tab 200 mg Clopine 100 69.30 50 34.65 Oral liq 50 mg per ml Clopine 100 17.33 Quetiapine Tab 100 mg Quetapel 90 3.45 Tab 200 mg Quetapel 90 5.75 Tab 25 mg Quetapel 90 1.79 Tab 300 mg Quetapel 90 9.60 Haloperidol Tab 500 mcg Serenace 100 6.23 Tab 1.5 mg Serenace 100 9.43 Tab 5 mg Serenace 100 29.72 Oral liq 2 mg per ml Serenace 100 23.84 Inj 5 mg per ml, 1ml ampoule Serenace 10 21.55 Olanzapine Inj 10 mg vial Any 0 Tab 2.5 mg Zypine 28 0.64 Tab 5 mg Zypine 28 1.15 Tab 10 mg Zypine 28 1.65 Tab orodispersible 10 mg Zypine ODT 28 2.05 Tab orodispersible 5 mg Zypine ODT 28 1.25 Risperidone Oral liq 1 mg per ml Risperon 30 7.66 Tab 0.5 mg Actavis 60 1.86 Tab 1 mg Actavis 60 2.06 Tab 2 mg Actavis 60 2.29 Tab 3 mg Actavis 60 2.50 Tab 4 mg Actavis 60 3.43 Ziprasidone Cap 20 mg Zusdone 60 14.50 Cap 40 mg Zusdone 60 24.70 Cap 60 mg Zusdone 60 33.80 Cap 80 mg Zusdone 60 39.70 Aripiprazole Tab 10 mg Aripiprazole Sandoz 30 17.50 Tab 30 mg Aripiprazole Sandoz 30 17.50 Tab 15 mg Aripiprazole Sandoz 30 17.50 Tab 20 mg Aripiprazole Sandoz 30 17.50 Tab 5 mg Aripiprazole Sandoz 30 17.50 Amisulpride Tab 100 mg Sulprix 30 4.56 Tab 200 mg Sulprix 60 14.75 Oral liq 100 mg per ml Solian 60 65.53 Tab 400 mg Sulprix 60 27.70 Zuclopenthixol hydrochloride Tab 10 mg Clopixol 100 31.45 Lithium carbonate Tab long-acting 400 mg Any 0 Cap 250 mg Douglas 100 9.42 Tab 250 mg Lithicarb FC 500 34.30 Tab 400 mg Lithicarb FC 100 12.83 Depot Injections Pipothiazine palmitate

For continuation only

Inj 50 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 50 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Any 0 Paliperidone <range>Paliperidone</range> The patient has had an initial Special Authority approval for risperidone depot injection or olanzapine depot injection The patient has schizophrenia or other psychotic disorder The patient has tried but failed to comply with treatment using oral atypical antipsychotic agents The patient has been admitted to hospital or treated in respite care, or intensive outpatient or home-based treatment for 30 days or more in the last 12 months medical practitioner 12 The initiation of paliperidone depot injection has been associated with fewer days of intensive intervention than was the case during a corresponding period of time prior to the initiation of an atypical antipsychotic depot injection medical practitioner 12 Zuclopenthixol decanoate Inj 200 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Clopixol 5 19.80 Inj 500 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule e.g. Clopixol Conc 0 Flupenthixol decanoate Inj 20 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Fluanxol 5 20.90 Inj 20 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Fluanxol 5 13.14 Inj 100 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Fluanxol 5 40.87 Olanzapine <range>Olanzapine</range> The patient has had an initial Special Authority approval for risperidone depot injection or paliperidone depot injection The patient has schizophrenia The patient has tried but failed to comply with treatment using oral atypical antipsychotic agents The patient has been admitted to hospital or treated in respite care, or intensive outpatient or home-based treatment for 30 days or more in the last 12 months medical practitioner 12 The initiation of olanzapine depot injection has been associated with fewer days of intensive intervention than was the case during a corresponding period of time prior to the initiation of an atypical antipsychotic depot injection medical practitioner 12 Haloperidol decanoate Inj 100 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Haldol Concentrate 5 55.90 Inj 50 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Haldol 5 28.39 Risperidone <range>Risperidone</range> The patient has had an initial Special Authority approval for paliperidone depot injection or olanzapine depot injection The patient has schizophrenia or other psychotic disorder The patient has tried but failed to comply with treatment using oral atypical antipsychotic agents The patient has been admitted to hospital or treated in respite care, or intensive outpatient or home-based treatment for 30 days or more in the last 12 months medical practitioner 12 The initiation of risperidone depot injection has been associated with fewer days of intensive intervention than was the case during a corresponding period of time prior to the initiation of an atypical antipsychotic depot injection medical practitioner 12 Anxiolytics Anxiolytics Oxazepam Tab 10 mg Ox-Pam 100 6.17 Tab 15 mg Ox-Pam 100 8.53 Clonazepam Tab 500 mcg Paxam 100 5.64 Tab 2 mg Paxam 100 10.78 Diazepam Tab 2 mg Arrow-Diazepam 500 15.05 Tab 5 mg Arrow-Diazepam 500 16.18 Lorazepam Tab 1 mg Ativan 250 9.72 Tab 2.5 mg Ativan 100 12.50 Buspirone hydrochloride Tab 5 mg Orion 100 20.23 Tab 10 mg Orion 100 13.16 Multiple Sclerosis Treatments Multiple Sclerosis Treatments Fingolimod <range>Fingolimod</range> Only for use in patients with approval by the Multiple Sclerosis Treatment Assessment Committee (MSTAC). Applications will be considered by MSTAC at its regular meetings and approved subject to eligibility according to the Entry and Stopping criteria (set out in Section B of the Pharmaceutical Schedule) medical practitioner Natalizumab <range>Natalizumab</range> Only for use in patients with approval by the Multiple Sclerosis Treatment Assessment Committee (MSTAC). Applications will be considered by MSTAC at its regular meetings and approved subject to eligibility according to the Entry and Stopping criteria (set out in Section B of the Pharmaceutical Schedule) medical practitioner Dimethyl fumarate <range>Dimethyl fumarate</range> Only for use in patients with approval by the Multiple Sclerosis Treatment Assessment Committee (MSTAC). Applications will be considered by MSTAC at its regular meetings and approved subject to eligibility according to the Entry and Stopping criteria (set out in Section B of the Pharmaceutical Schedule) medical practitioner Teriflunomide <range>Teriflunomide</range> Only for use in patients with approval by the Multiple Sclerosis Treatment Assessment Committee (MSTAC). Applications will be considered by MSTAC at its regular meetings and approved subject to eligibility according to the Entry and Stopping criteria (set out in Section B of the Pharmaceutical Schedule) medical practitioner Other Multiple Sclerosis Treatments <range>Other Multiple Sclerosis Treatments</range> Only for use in patients with approval by the Multiple Sclerosis Treatment Assessment Committee (MSTAC). Applications will be considered by MSTAC at its regular meetings and approved subject to eligibility according to the Entry and Stopping criteria (set out in Section B of the Pharmaceutical Schedule) medical practitioner Sedatives and Hypnotics Sedatives and Hypnotics Chloral hydrate Oral liq 100 mg per ml Any 0 Oral liq 200 mg per ml Any 0 Lormetazepam

For continuation only

Tab 1 mg Any 0 Nitrazepam Tab 5 mg Nitrados 100 5.22 Triazolam

For continuation only

Tab 125 mcg Any 0 Tab 250 mcg Any 0 Melatonin <range>Melatonin</range> Patient has been diagnosed with persistent and distressing insomnia secondary to a neurodevelopmental disorder (including, but not limited to, autism spectrum disorder or attention deficit hyperactivity disorder) Behavioural and environmental approaches have been tried or are inappropriate Funded modified-release melatonin is to be given at doses no greater than 10 mg per day Patient is aged 18 years or under psychiatrist paediatrician neurologist respiratory specialist 12 Patient is aged 18 years or under Patient has demonstrated clinically meaningful benefit from funded modified-release melatonin (clinician determined) Patient has had a trial of funded modified-release melatonin discontinuation within the past 12 months and has had a recurrence of persistent and distressing insomnia Funded modified-release melatonin is to be given at doses no greater than 10 mg per day psychiatrist paediatrician neurologist respiratory specialist 12 Patient has insomnia and benzodiazepines and zopiclone are contraindicated For in-hospital use only medical practitioner Midazolam Inj 1 mg per ml, 5 ml ampoule Midazolam-Claris 10 4.30 Inj 5 mg per ml, 3 ml ampoule Midazolam-Claris 5 2.50 Oral liq 2 mg per ml Any 0 Tab 7.5 mg Hypnovel 100 40.00 Temazepam Tab 10 mg Normison 25 1.27 Zopiclone Tab 7.5 mg Zopiclone Actavis 30 0.98 Phenobarbitone Inj 200 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Any 0 Stimulants / ADHD Treatments Stimulants / ADHD Treatments Caffeine Tab 100 mg Any 0 Modafinil <range>Modafinil</range> The patient has a diagnosis of narcolepsy and has excessive daytime sleepiness associated with narcolepsy occurring almost daily for three months or more The patient has a multiple sleep latency test with a mean sleep latency of less than or equal to 10 minutes and 2 or more sleep onset rapid eye movement periods The patient has at least one of: cataplexy, sleep paralysis or hypnagogic hallucinations An effective dose of a listed formulation of methylphenidate or dexamphetamine has been trialled and discontinued because of intolerable side effects Methylphenidate and dexamphetamine are contraindicated neurologist respiratory specialist 24 The treatment remains appropriate and the patient is benefiting from treatment neurologist respiratory specialist 24 Methylphenidate hydrochloride <range>Methylphenidate hydrochloride</range> Patient has ADHD (Attention Deficit and Hyperactivity Disorder), diagnosed according to DSM-IV or ICD 10 criteria paediatrician psychiatrist Patient suffers from narcolepsy neurologist respiratory specialist 24 The treatment remains appropriate and the patient is benefiting from treatment neurologist respiratory specialist 24 Patient has ADHD (Attention Deficit and Hyperactivity Disorder), diagnosed according to DSM-IV or ICD 10 criteria Patient is taking a currently listed formulation of methylphenidate hydrochloride (immediate-release or sustained-release) which has not been effective due to significant administration and/or compliance difficulties There is significant concern regarding the risk of diversion or abuse of immediate-release methylphenidate hydrochloride paediatrician psychiatrist Dexamfetamine sulfate <range>Dexamphetamine sulphate</range> Patient has ADHD (Attention Deficit and Hyperactivity Disorder), diagnosed according to DSM-IV or ICD 10 criteria paediatrician psychiatrist Patient suffers from narcolepsy neurologist respiratory specialist 24 The treatment remains appropriate and the patient is benefiting from treatment neurologist respiratory specialist 24 Atomoxetine <range>Atomoxetine</range> Patient has ADHD (Attention Deficit and Hyperactivity Disorder) diagnosed according to DSM-IV or ICD 10 criteria Once-daily dosing Treatment with a subsidised formulation of a stimulant has resulted in the development or worsening of serious adverse reactions or where the combination of subsidised stimulant treatment with another agent would pose an unacceptable medical risk Treatment with a subsidised formulation of a stimulant has resulted in worsening of co-morbid substance abuse or there is a significant risk of diversion with subsidised stimulant therapy An effective dose of a subsidised formulation of a stimulant has been trialled and has been discontinued because of inadequate clinical response Treatment with a subsidised formulation of a stimulant is considered inappropriate because the patient has a history of psychoses or has a first-degree relative with schizophrenia The patient will not be receiving treatment with atomoxetine in combination with a subsidised formulation of a stimulant, except for the purposes of transitioning from subsidised stimulant therapy to atomoxetine medical practitioner

A "subsidised formulation of a stimulant" refers to currently listed methylphenidate hydrochloride tablet formulations (immediate-release, sustained-release and extended-release) or dexamphetamine sulphate tablets.

 Treatments for Dementia Treatments for Dementia Rivastigmine <range>Rivastigmine</range> The patient has been diagnosed with dementia The patient has experienced intolerable nausea and/or vomiting from donepezil tablets medical practitioner 6 The treatment remains appropriate The patient has demonstrated a significant and sustained benefit from treatment medical practitioner 12 Donepezil hydrochloride Tab 5 mg Donepezil-Rex 90 4.34 Tab 10 mg Donepezil-Rex 90 6.64 Treatments for Substance Dependence Treatments for Substance Dependence Disulfiram Tab 200 mg Antabuse 100 44.30 Naltrexone hydrochloride <range>Naltrexone hydrochloride</range> Patient is currently enrolled, or is planned to be enrolled, in a recognised comprehensive treatment programme for alcohol dependence Naltrexone is to be prescribed by, or on the recommendation of, a physician working in an Alcohol and Drug Service medical practitioner For the treatment of opioid-induced constipation medical practitioner Nicotine <range>Nicotine</range> For perioperative use in patients who have a 'nil by mouth' instruction For use within mental health inpatient units For acute use in agitated patients who are unable to leave the hospital facilities medical practitioner Bupropion hydrochloride Tab modified-release 150 mg Zyban 30 11.00 Varenicline <range>Varenicline</range> Short-term therapy as an aid to achieving abstinence in a patient who has indicated that they are ready to cease smoking The patient is part of, or is about to enrol in, a comprehensive support and counselling smoking cessation programme, which includes prescriber or nurse monitoring The patient has tried but failed to quit smoking after at least two separate trials of nicotine replacement therapy, at least one of which included the patient receiving comprehensive advice on the optimal use of nicotine replacement therapy The patient has tried but failed to quit smoking using bupropion or nortriptyline The patient has not used funded varenicline in the last 12 months Varenicline is not to be used in combination with other pharmacological smoking cessation treatments and the patient has agreed to this The patient is not pregnant The patient will not be prescribed more than 12 weeks' funded varenicline in a 12 month period medical practitioner Buprenorphine with naloxone <range>Buprenorphine with naloxone</range> Patient is opioid dependent Patient is currently engaged with an opioid treatment service approved by the Ministry of Health Prescriber works in an opioid treatment service approved by the Ministry of Health medical practitioner Patient is opioid dependent Patient will not be receiving methadone Patient is currently enrolled in an opioid substitution treatment program in a service approved by the Ministry of Health Prescriber works in an opioid treatment service approved by the Ministry of Health medical practitioner Oncology Agents and Immunosuppressants Chemotherapeutic Agents Alkylating Agents Carmustine Inj 100 mg vial BiCNU 1 532.00 Chlorambucil Tab 2 mg Any 0 Melphalan Inj 50 mg vial Any 0 Tab 2 mg Any 0 Thiotepa Inj 15 mg vial Any 0 Inj 100 mg vial Any 0 Bendamustine hydrochloride <range>Bendamustine hydrochloride</range> The patient has Binet stage B or C, or progressive stage A chronic lymphocytic leukaemia requiring treatment The patient is chemotherapy treatment naive The patient is unable to tolerate toxicity of full-dose FCR Patient has ECOG performance status 0-2 Patient has a Cumulative Illness Rating Scale (CIRS) score of <6 Bendamustine is to be administered at a maximum dose of 100 mg/m² on days 1 and 2 every 4 weeks for a maximum of 6 cycles medical practitioner

'Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)' includes small lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL). Chemotherapy treatment is considered to comprise a known standard therapeutic chemotherapy regimen and supportive treatments.

 The patient has indolent low grade NHL requiring treatment Patient has a WHO performance status of 0-2 Patient is treatment naive Bendamustine is to be administered for a maximum of 6 cycles (in combination with rituximab when CD20+) Patient has relapsed refractory disease following prior chemotherapy The patient has not received prior bendamustine therapy Bendamustine is to be administered for a maximum of 6 cycles in relapsed patients (in combination with rituximab when CD20+) Patient has had a rituximab treatment-free interval of 12 months or more Bendamustine is to be administered as a monotherapy for a maximum of 6 cycles in rituximab refractory patients medical practitioner 9 Patients have not received a bendamustine regimen within the last 12 months Bendamustine is to be administered for a maximum of 6 cycles in relapsed patients (in combination with rituximab when CD20+) Patient has had a rituximab treatment-free interval of 12 months or more Bendamustine is to be administered as a monotherapy for a maximum of 6 cycles in rituximab refractory patients medical practitioner 9

'indolent, low-grade lymphomas' includes follicular, mantle cell, marginal zone and lymphoplasmacytic/ Waldenström's macroglobulinaemia.

 Cyclophosphamide Tab 50 mg Procytox 100 158.00 Endoxan 50 79.00 Inj 1 g vial Endoxan 1 35.65 Inj 2 g vial Endoxan 1 71.25 Ifosfamide Inj 1 g vial Holoxan 1 96.00 Inj 2 g vial Holoxan 1 180.00 Busulfan Inj 6 mg per ml, 10 ml ampoule Any 0 Tab 2 mg Myleran 100 89.25 Lomustine Cap 10 mg Ceenu 20 132.59 Cap 40 mg Ceenu 20 399.15 Anthracyclines and Other Cytotoxic Antibiotics Dactinomycin [Actinomycin D] Inj 0.5 mg vial Cosmegen 1 166.75 Bleomycin sulphate Inj 15,000 iu vial DBL Bleomycin Sulfate 1 161.01 Daunorubicin Inj 2 mg per ml, 10 ml vial Pfizer 1 130.00 Doxorubicin hydrochloride Inj 2 mg per ml, 25 ml vial

Note: DV limit applies to all 50 mg presentations of doxorubicin hydrochloride.

Doxorubicin Ebewe 1 11.50 Inj 2 mg per ml, 5 ml vial Any 0 Inj 2 mg per ml, 50 ml vial Doxorubicin Ebewe 1 23.00 Inj 2 mg per ml, 100 ml vial Doxorubicin Ebewe 1 46.00 Inj 50 mg vial Any 0 Epirubicin hydrochloride Inj 2 mg per ml, 5 ml vial Epirubicin Ebewe 1 25.00 Inj 2 mg per ml, 25 ml vial Epirubicin Ebewe 1 30.00 Inj 2 mg per ml, 50 ml vial Epirubicin Ebewe 1 32.50 Inj 2 mg per ml, 100 ml vial Epirubicin Ebewe 1 65.00 Idarubicin hydrochloride Inj 5 mg vial Zavedos 1 93.00 Inj 10 mg vial Zavedos 1 198.00 Mitozantrone Inj 2 mg per ml, 10 ml vial Mitozantrone Ebewe 1 97.50 Mitomycin C Inj 5 mg vial Arrow 1 204.08 Antimetabolites Fluorouracil Inj 50 mg per ml, 100 ml vial Fluorouracil Ebewe 1 30.00 Inj 50 mg per ml, 20 ml vial Fluorouracil Ebewe 1 12.00 Inj 50 mg per ml, 50 ml vial Fluorouracil Ebewe 1 17.00 Thioguanine Tab 40 mg Any 0 Azacitidine <range>Azacitidine</range> The patient has International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) intermediate-2 or high risk myelodysplastic syndrome The patient has chronic myelomonocytic leukaemia (10%-29% marrow blasts without myeloproliferative disorder) The patient has acute myeloid leukaemia with 20-30% blasts and multi-lineage dysplasia, according to World Health Organisation Classification (WHO) The patient has performance status (WHO/ECOG) grade 0-2 The patient does not have secondary myelodysplastic syndrome resulting from chemical injury or prior treatment with chemotherapy and/or radiation for other diseases The patient has an estimated life expectancy of at least 3 months haematologist 12 No evidence of disease progression, and The treatment remains appropriate and patient is benefitting from treatment haematologist 12 Pemetrexed <range>Pemetrexed</range> Patient has been diagnosed with mesothelioma Pemetrexed to be administered at a dose of 500 mg/m² every 21 days in combination with cisplatin or carboplatin for a maximum of 6 cycles medical practitioner 8 No evidence of disease progression The treatment remains appropriate and the patient is benefitting from treatment Pemetrexed to be administered at a dose of 500mg/m² every 21 days for a maximum of 6 cycles medical practitioner 8 Patient has locally advanced or metastatic non-squamous non-small cell lung carcinoma Patient has chemotherapy-naïve disease Pemetrexed is to be administered at a dose of 500 mg/m² every 21 days in combination with cisplatin or carboplatin for a maximum of 6 cycles Patient has had first-line treatment with platinum based chemotherapy Patient has not received prior funded treatment with pemetrexed Pemetrexed is to be administered at a dose of 500 mg/m² every 21 days for a maximum of 6 cycles medical practitioner 8 No evidence of disease progression The treatment remains appropriate and the patient is benefitting from treatment Pemetrexed is to be administered at a dose of 500mg/m² every 21 days medical practitioner 8 Capecitabine Tab 150 mg Brinov 60 11.15 Tab 500 mg Brinov 120 62.28 Cladribine Inj 1 mg per ml, 10 ml vial Leustatin 7 5249.72 Inj 2 mg per ml, 5 ml vial Any 0 Cytarabine Inj 100 mg per ml, 20 ml vial Pfizer 1 41.36 Inj 20 mg per ml, 5 ml vial Pfizer 5 400.00 Fludarabine phosphate Tab 10 mg Fludara Oral 20 412.00 Inj 50 mg vial Fludarabine Ebewe 5 525.00 Gemcitabine Inj 10 mg per ml, 100 ml vial Gemcitabine Ebewe 1 15.89 Inj 10 mg per ml, 20 ml vial Gemcitabine Ebewe 1 8.36 Methotrexate Tab 2.5 mg Trexate 30 3.18 Tab 10 mg Trexate 50 21.00 Inj 100 mg per ml, 10 ml vial Methotrexate Ebewe 1 25.00 Inj 100 mg per ml, 50 ml vial Methotrexate Ebewe 1 79.99 Inj 2.5 mg per ml, 2 ml vial Any 0 Inj 25 mg per ml, 2 ml vial DBL Methotrexate Onco-Vial 5 30.00 Inj 25 mg per ml, 20 ml vial DBL Methotrexate Onco-Vial 1 45.00 Inj 7.5 mg prefilled syringe Methotrexate Sandoz 1 14.61 Inj 10 mg prefilled syringe Methotrexate Sandoz 1 14.66 Inj 15 mg prefilled syringe Methotrexate Sandoz 1 14.77 Inj 20 mg prefilled syringe Methotrexate Sandoz 1 14.88 Inj 25 mg prefilled syringe Methotrexate Sandoz 1 14.99 Inj 30 mg prefilled syringe Methotrexate Sandoz 1 15.09 Mercaptopurine Tab 50 mg Puri-nethol 25 49.41 Oral suspension 20 mg per ml <range>Mercaptopurine</range> The patient requires a total dose of less than one full 50 mg tablet per day paediatric haematologist paediatric oncologist 12 The patient requires a total dose of less than one full 50 mg tablet per day paediatric haematologist paediatric oncologist 12 Other Cytotoxic Agents Amsacrine Inj 50 mg per ml, 1.5 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 75 mg Any 0 Anagrelide hydrochloride Cap 0.5 mg Any 0 Pentostatin [Deoxycoformycin] Inj 10 mg vial Any 0 Lenalidomide <range>Lenalidomide</range> Patient has relapsed or refractory multiple myeloma with progressive disease Lenalidomide to be used as third line* treatment for multiple myeloma Lenalidomide to be used as second line treatment for multiple myeloma The patient has experienced severe (grade 3 or higher), dose limiting, peripheral neuropathy with either bortezomib or thalidomide that precludes further treatment with either of these treatments Lenalidomide to be administered at a maximum dose of 25 mg/day in combination with dexamethasone haematologist 6 No evidence of disease progression The treatment remains appropriate and patient is benefitting from treatment haematologist 6

Indication marked with * is an unapproved indication. A line of treatment is considered to comprise either: a) a known therapeutic chemotherapy regimen and supportive treatments or b) a transplant induction chemotherapy regimen, stem cell transplantation and supportive treatments. Prescriptions must be written by a registered prescriber in the lenalidomide risk management programme operated by the supplier.

 Colaspase [L-asparaginase] Inj 10,000 iu vial Leunase 1 102.32 Dacarbazine Inj 200 mg vial DBL Dacarbazine 1 58.06 Etoposide Cap 50 mg Vepesid 20 340.73 Cap 100 mg Vepesid 10 340.73 Inj 20 mg per ml, 5 ml vial Rex Medical 1 7.90 Irinotecan hydrochloride Inj 20 mg per ml, 2 ml vial Irinotecan Actavis 40 1 11.50 Inj 20 mg per ml, 5 ml vial Irinotecan Actavis 100 1 17.80 Procarbazine hydrochloride Cap 50 mg Natulan 50 498.00 Hydroxyurea Cap 500 mg Hydrea 100 31.76 Tretinoin Cap 10 mg Vesanoid 100 479.50 Temozolomide <range>Temozolomide</range> Patient has newly diagnosed glioblastoma multiforme Patient has newly diagnosed anaplastic astrocytoma* Temozolomide is to be (or has been) given concomitantly with radiotherapy Following concomitant treatment temozolomide is to be used for a maximum of 5 days treatment per cycle at a maximum dose of 200 mg/m² per day medical practitioner 12 Patient has been diagnosed with metastatic or unresectable well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumour* Temozolomide is to be given in combination with capecitabine Temozolomide is to be used in 28 day treatment cycles for a maximum of 5 days treatment per cycle at a maximum dose of 200 mg/m² per day Temozolomide to be discontinued at disease progression medical practitioner 9 Patient has relapse or refractory Ewing’s sarcoma medical practitioner 9 Patient has glioblastoma multiforme The treatment remains appropriate and the patient is benefitting from treatment Patient has anaplastic astrocytoma* The treatment remains appropriate and the patient is benefitting from treatment Adjuvant temozolomide is to be used for a maximum of 24 months medical practitioner 12 No evidence of disease progression The treatment remains appropriate and the patient is benefitting from treatment medical practitioner 6 No evidence of disease progression The treatment remains appropriate and the patient is benefitting from treatment medical practitioner 6

Indication marked with a * is an unapproved indication. Temozolomide is not funded for the treatment of relapsed high grade glioma.

 Arsenic trioxide Inj 1 mg per ml, 10 ml vial AFT 10 4817.00 Thalidomide <range>Thalidomide</range> The patient has multiple myeloma The patient has systemic AL amyloidosis* The patient has erythema nodosum leprosum medical practitioner 12 Patient has obtained a response from treatment during the initial approval period medical practitioner

Prescription must be written by a registered prescriber in the thalidomide risk management programme operated by the supplier

Maximum dose of 400 mg daily as monotherapy or in a combination therapy regimen

Indication marked with * is an unapproved indication

 Bortezomib <range>Bortezomib</range> The patient has treatment-naive symptomatic multiple myeloma The patient has treatment-naive symptomatic systemic AL amyloidosis Maximum of 9 treatment cycles medical practitioner 15 The patient has relapsed or refractory multiple myeloma The patient has relapsed or refractory systemic AL amyloidosis The patient has received only one prior front line chemotherapy for multiple myeloma or amyloidosis The patient has not had prior publicly funded treatment with bortezomib Maximum of 4 treatment cycles medical practitioner 8 The patient's disease obtained at least a partial response from treatment with bortezomib at the completion of cycle 4 Maximum of 4 further treatment cycles (making a total maximum of 8 consecutive treatment cycles) medical practitioner 8

Responding relapsed/refractory multiple myeloma patients should receive no more than 2 additional cycles of treatment beyond the cycle at which a confirmed complete response was first achieved. A line of therapy is considered to comprise either:

  1. A known therapeutic chemotherapy regimen and supportive treatments; or

  2. A transplant induction chemotherapy regimen, stem cell transplantation and supportive treatments.

Refer to datasheet for recommended dosage and number of doses of bortezomib per treatment cycle.

 Etoposide (as phosphate) Inj 100 mg vial Etopophos 1 40.00 Pegaspargase <range>Pegaspargase</range> The patient has newly diagnosed acute lymphoblastic leukaemia Pegaspargase to be used with a contemporary intensive multi-agent chemotherapy treatment protocol Treatment is with curative intent medical practitioner 12 The patient has relapsed acute lymphoblastic leukaemia Pegaspargase to be used with a contemporary intensive multi-agent chemotherapy treatment protocol Treatment is with curative intent medical practitioner 12 Platinum Compounds Carboplatin Inj 10 mg per ml, 5 ml vial DBL Carboplatin 1 15.07 Inj 10 mg per ml, 15 ml vial DBL Carboplatin 1 14.05 Inj 10 mg per ml, 45 ml vial DBL Carboplatin 1 32.59 Cisplatin Inj 1 mg per ml, 50 ml vial DBL Cisplatin 1 12.29 Inj 1 mg per ml, 100 ml vial DBL Cisplatin 1 19.70 Oxaliplatin Inj 5 mg per ml, 10 ml vial Oxaliccord 1 13.32 Inj 5 mg per ml, 20 ml vial Oxaliccord 1 16.00 Protein-Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors Nilotinib <range>Nilotinib</range> Patient has a diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) in blast crisis, accelerated phase, or in chronic phase Patient has documented CML treatment failure* with imatinib Patient has experienced treatment limiting toxicity with imatinib precluding further treatment with imatinib Maximum nilotinib dose of 800 mg/day Subsidised for use as monotherapy only haematologist 6

*treatment failure as defined by Leukaemia Net Guidelines.

 Lack of treatment failure while on nilotinib as defined by Leukaemia Net Guidelines Nilotinib treatment remains appropriate and the patient is benefiting from treatment Maximum nilotinib dose of 800 mg/day Subsidised for use as monotherapy only haematologist 6 Ruxolitinib <range>Ruxolitinib</range> The patient has primary myelofibrosis or post-polycythemia vera myelofibrosis or post-essential thrombocythemia myelofibrosis A classification of risk of intermediate-2 or high-risk myelofibrosis according to either the International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS), Dynamic International Prognostic Scoring System (DIPSS), or the Age-Adjusted DIPSS A maximum dose of 20 mg twice daily is to be given haematologist 12 The treatment remains appropriate and the patient is benefiting from treatment A maximum dose of 20 mg twice daily is to be given haematologist 12 Imatinib mesilate

Imatinib-AFT is not a registered for the treatment of Gastro Intestinal Stromal Tumours (GIST). The Glivec brand of imatinib mesilate (supplied by Novartis) remains fully subsidised under Special Authority for patients with unresectable and/or metastatic malignant GIST, see SA1460 in Section B of the Pharmaceutical Schedule

Tab 100 mg <range>Imatinib mesilate - Tab 100 mg</range> Patient has diagnosis (confirmed by an oncologist) of unresectable and/or metastatic malignant gastrointestinal stromal tumour (GIST) Maximum dose of 400 mg/day medical practitioner 12 Adequate clinical response to treatment with imatinib (prescriber determined) medical practitioner 12

The Glivec brand of imatinib mesilate (supplied by Novartis) remains fully subsidised under Special Authority for patients with unresectable and/or metastatic malignant GIST, see SA1460 in Section B of the Pharmaceutical Schedule.

 Cap 100 mg Imatinib-AFT 60 98.00 Cap 400 mg Imatinib-AFT 30 197.50 Dasatinib <range>Dasatinib</range> For use in patients with approval from the CML/GIST Co-ordinator medical practitioner Erlotinib <range>Erlotinib</range> Patient has locally advanced or metastatic, unresectable, non-squamous Non Small Cell Lung Cancer (NSCLC) There is documentation confirming that the disease expresses activating mutations of EGFR tyrosine kinase Patient is treatment naive The patient has discontinued getitinib due to intolerance The cancer did not progress while on gefitinib Erlotinib is to be given for a maximum of 3 months medical practitioner 4 Radiological assessment (preferably including CT scan) indicates NSCLC has not progressed Erlotinib is to be given for a maximum of 3 months medical practitioner 6 Sunitinib <range>Sunitinib</range> The patient has metastatic renal cell carcinoma The patient is treatment naive The patient has only received prior cytokine treatment The patient has only received prior treatment with an investigational agent within the confines of a bona fide clinical trial which has Ethics Committee approval The patient has discontinued pazopanib within 3 months of starting treatment due to intolerance The cancer did not progress whilst on pazopanib The patient has good performance status (WHO/ECOG grade 0-2) The disease is of predominant clear cell histology Lactate dehydrogenase level > 1.5 times upper limit of normal Haemoglobin level < lower limit of normal Corrected serum calcium level > 10 mg/dL (2.5 mmol/L) Interval of < 1 year from original diagnosis to the start of systemic therapy Karnofsky performance score of less than or equal to 70 2 or more sites of organ metastasis Sunitinib to be used for a maximum of 2 cycles medical practitioner 3

RCC - Sunitinib treatment should be stopped if disease progresses.

Poor prognosis patients are defined as having at least 3 of criteria 5.1-5.6. Intermediate prognosis patients are defined as having 1 or 2 of criteria 5.1-5.6.

 No evidence of disease progression The treatment remains appropriate and the patient is benefiting from treatment medical practitioner 3 The patient has unresectable or metastatic malignant gastrointestinal stromal tumour (GIST) The patient's disease has progressed following treatment with imatinib The patient has documented treatment-limiting intolerance, or toxicity to, imatinib medical practitioner 3 The patient has responded to treatment or has stable disease as determined by Choi's modified CT response evaluation criteria as follows: The patient has had a complete response (disappearance of all lesions and no new lesions) The patient has had a partial response (a decrease in size of 10% or more or decrease in tumour density in Hounsfield Units (HU) of 15% or more on CT and no new lesions and no obvious progression of non-measurable disease) The patient has stable disease (does not meet criteria the two above) and does not have progressive disease and no symptomatic deterioration attributed to tumour progression The treatment remains appropriate and the patient is benefiting from treatment medical practitioner 6

GIST - It is recommended that response to treatment be assessed using Choi's modified CT response evaluation criteria (J Clin Oncol, 2007, 25:1753-1759). Progressive disease is defined as either: an increase in tumour size of 10% or more and not meeting criteria of partial response (PR) by tumour density (HU) on CT; or: new lesions, or new intratumoral nodules, or increase in the size of the existing intratumoral nodules.

 Lapatinib <range>Lapatinib</range> The patient has metastatic breast cancer expressing HER-2 IHC 3+ or ISH+ (including FISH or other current technology) The patient has not previously received trastuzumab treatment for HER 2 positive metastatic breast cancer Lapatinib not to be given in combination with trastuzumab Lapatinib to be discontinued at disease progression The patient has metastatic breast cancer expressing HER-2 IHC 3+ or ISH+ (including FISH or other current technology) The patient started trastuzumab for metastatic breast cancer but discontinued trastuzumab within 3 months of starting treatment due to intolerance The cancer did not progress whilst on trastuzumab Lapatinib not to be given in combination with trastuzumab Lapatinib to be discontinued at disease progression medical practitioner 12 The patient has metastatic breast cancer expressing HER-2 IHC 3+ or ISH+ (including FISH or other current technology) The cancer has not progressed at any time point during the previous 12 months whilst on lapatinib Lapatinib not to be given in combination with trastuzumab Lapatinib to be discontinued at disease progression medical practitioner 12 Pazopanib <range>Pazopanib</range> The patient has metastatic renal cell carcinoma The patient is treatment naive The patient has only received prior cytokine treatment The patient has discontinued sunitinib within 3 months of starting treatment due to intolerance The cancer did not progress whilst on sunitinib The patient has good performance status (WHO/ECOG grade 0-2) The disease is of predominant clear cell histology Lactate dehydrogenase level > 1.5 times upper limit of normal Haemoglobin level < lower limit of normal Corrected serum calcium level > 10 mg/dL (2.5 mmol/L) Interval of < 1 year from original diagnosis to the start of systemic therapy Karnofsky performance score of less than or equal to 70 2 or more sites of organ metastasis medical practitioner 3 No evidence of disease progression The treatment remains appropriate and the patient is benefiting from treatment medical practitioner 3

Pazopanib treatment should be stopped if disease progresses.

Poor prognosis patients are defined as having at least 3 of criteria 5.1-5.6. Intermediate prognosis patients are defined as having 1 or 2 of criteria 5.1-5.6.

 Gefitinib <range>Gefitinib</range> Patient has locally advanced, or metastatic, unresectable, non-squamous Non Small Cell Lung Cancer (NSCLC) Patient is treatment naive The patient has discontinued erlotinib due to intolerance The cancer did not progress whilst on erlotinib There is documentation confirming that disease expresses activating mutations of EGFR tyrosine kinase Gefitinib is to be given for a maximum of 3 months medical practitioner 4 Radiological assessment (preferably including CT scan) indicates NSCLC has not progressed Gefitinib is to be given for a maximum of 3 months medical practitioner 6 Taxanes Docetaxel Inj 10 mg per ml, 2 ml vial DBL Docetaxel 1 12.40 Inj 10 mg per ml, 8 ml vial DBL Docetaxel 1 26.95 Paclitaxel Inj 6 mg per ml, 5 ml vial Paclitaxel Ebewe 5 47.30 Inj 6 mg per ml, 16.7 ml vial Paclitaxel Ebewe 1 20.00 Inj 6 mg per ml, 25 ml vial Paclitaxel Ebewe 1 26.69 Inj 6 mg per ml, 50 ml vial Paclitaxel Ebewe 1 35.35 Treatment of Cytotoxic-Induced Side Effects Mesna Tab 400 mg Uromitexan 50 273.00 Tab 600 mg Uromitexan 50 407.50 Inj 100 mg per ml, 4 ml ampoule Uromitexan 15 161.25 Inj 100 mg per ml, 10 ml ampoule Uromitexan 15 370.35 Calcium folinate Inj 3 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 10 mg per ml, 30 ml vial Calcium Folinate Ebewe 1 22.51 Tab 15 mg DBL Leucovorin Calcium 10 104.26 Inj 10 mg per ml, 5 ml ampoule Calcium Folinate Ebewe 5 18.25 Inj 10 mg per ml, 10 ml vial Calcium Folinate Ebewe 1 7.33 Calcium Folinate Sandoz 1 7.30 Inj 10 mg per ml, 100 ml vial Calcium Folinate Ebewe 1 67.51 Calcium Folinate Sandoz 1 60.00 Inj 10 mg per ml, 5 ml vial Calcium Folinate Sandoz 1 4.55 Inj 10 mg per ml, 35 ml vial Calcium Folinate Sandoz 1 20.95 Vinca Alkaloids Vinblastine sulphate Inj 1 mg per ml, 10 ml vial Hospira 5 186.46 Vincristine sulphate Inj 1 mg per ml, 1 ml vial DBL Vincristine Sulfate 5 74.52 Inj 1 mg per ml, 2 ml vial DBL Vincristine Sulfate 5 85.61 Vinorelbine Inj 10 mg per ml, 1 ml vial Navelbine 1 8.00 Inj 10 mg per ml, 5 ml vial Navelbine 1 40.00 Endocrine Therapy Endocrine Therapy Abiraterone acetate <range>Abiraterone acetate</range> Patient has prostate cancer Patient has metastases Patient's disease is castration resistant Patient is symptomatic Patient has disease progression (rising serum PSA) after second line anti-androgen therapy Patient has ECOG performance score of 0-1 Patient has not had prior treatment with taxane chemotherapy Patient.s disease has progressed following prior chemotherapy containing a taxane Patient has ECOG performance score of 0-2 Patient has not had prior treatment with abiraterone medical oncologist radiation oncologist urologist 5 Significant decrease in serum PSA from baseline No evidence of clinical disease progression No initiation of taxane chemotherapy with abiraterone The treatment remains appropriate and the patient is benefiting from treatment medical oncologist radiation oncologist urologist 5 Octreotide <range>Octreotide</range> The patient has nausea* and vomiting* due to malignant bowel obstruction* Treatment with antiemetics, rehydration, antimuscarinic agents, corticosteroids and analgesics for at least 48 hours has failed Octreotide to be given at a maximum dose 1500 mcg daily for up to 4 weeks medical practitioner

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications

 The patient has acromegaly Treatment with surgery, radiotherapy and a dopamine agonist has failed Treatment with octreotide is for an interim period while awaiting the effects of radiotherapy and a dopamine agonist has failed The patient is unwilling, or unable, to undergo surgery and/or radiotherapy medical practitioner 3 IGF1 levels have decreased since starting octreotide The treatment remains appropriate and the patient is benefiting from treatment medical practitioner

In patients with acromegaly octreotide treatment should be discontinued if IGF1 levels have not decreased after 3 months treatment. In patients treated with radiotherapy octreotide treatment should be withdrawn every 2 years, for 1 month, for assessment of remission. Octreotide treatment should be stopped where there is biochemical evidence of remission (normal IGF1 levels) following octreotide treatment withdrawal for at least 4 weeks.

 VIPomas and glucagonomas - for patients who are seriously ill in order to improve their clinical state prior to definitive surgery Gastrinoma Patient has failed surgery Patient in metastatic disease after H2 antagonists (or proton pump inhibitors) have failed Insulinomas Surgery is contraindicated or has failed For pre-operative control of hypoglycaemia and for maintenance therapy Carcinoid syndrome (diagnosed by tissue pathology and/or urinary 5HIAA analysis) Disabling symptoms not controlled by maximal medical therapy medical practitioner

restriction applies only to the long-acting formulations of octreotide

 Flutamide Tab 250 mg Flutamin 100 100 55.00 Tamoxifen citrate Tab 10 mg Genox 100 19.50 Tab 20 mg Genox 100 12.50 30 2.63 Megestrol acetate Tab 160 mg Apo-Megestrol 30 63.53 Bicalutamide Tab 50 mg Binarex 28 3.80 Aromatase Inhibitors Letrozole Tab 2.5 mg Letrole 30 4.68 Exemestane Tab 25 mg Pfizer Exemestane 30 14.50 Anastrozole Tab 1 mg Rolin 30 5.04 Imaging Agents Imaging Agents Aminolevulinic acid hydrochloride <range>Aminolevulinic acid hydrochloride</range> Patient has newly diagnosed, untreated, glioblastoma multiforme Treatment to be used as adjuvant to fluorescence-guided resection Patient's tumour is amenable to complete resection medical practitioner Immunosuppressants Calcineurin Inhibitors Ciclosporin Cap 100 mg Neoral 50 177.81 Cap 25 mg Neoral 50 44.63 Cap 50 mg Neoral 50 88.91 Oral liq 100 mg per ml Neoral 50 198.13 Inj 50 mg per ml, 5 ml ampoule Sandimmun 10 276.30 Tacrolimus <range>Tacrolimus</range> For use in organ transplant recipients any specialist Patient requires long-term systemic immunosuppression Ciclosporin has been trialled and discontinued treatment because of unacceptable side effects or inadequate clinical response any specialist

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications

 Fusion Proteins Etanercept <range>Etanercept</range> The patient has had an initial Special Authority approval for adalimumab for juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) The patient has experienced intolerable side effects from adalimumab The patient has received insufficient benefit from adalimumab to meet the renewal criteria for adalimumab for JIA Patient diagnosed with Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) To be used as an adjunct to methotrexate therapy or monotherapy where use of methotrexate is limited by toxicity or intolerance Patient has had severe active polyarticular course JIA for 6 months duration or longer Patient has tried and not responded to at least three months of oral or parenteral methotrexate (at a dose of 10-20 mg/m² weekly or at the maximum tolerated dose) in combination with either oral corticosteroids (prednisone 0.25 mg/kg or at the maximum tolerated dose) or a full trial of serial intra-articular corticosteroid injections Patient has persistent symptoms of poorly-controlled and active disease in at least 20 swollen, tender joints Patient has persistent symptoms of poorly-controlled and active disease in at least four joints from the following: wrist, elbow, knee, ankle, shoulder, cervical spine, hip Physician's global assessment indicating severe disease rheumatologist named specialist 6 Treatment is to be used as an adjunct to methotrexate therapy or monotherapy where use of methotrexate is limited by toxicity or intolerance Following 3 to 4 months' initial treatment, the patient has at least a 50% decrease in active joint count and an improvement in physician's global assessment from baseline On subsequent reapplications, the patient demonstrates at least a continuing 30% improvement in active joint count and continued improvement in physician's global assessment from baseline rheumatologist named specialist 6 The patient has had an initial Special Authority approval for adalimumab for rheumatoid arthritis The patient has experienced intolerable side effects from adalimumab The patient has received insufficient benefit from adalimumab to meet the renewal criteria for adalimumab for rheumatoid arthritis Patient has had severe and active erosive rheumatoid arthritis (either confirmed by radiology imaging, or the patient is cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody positive) for six months duration or longer Treatment is to be used as an adjunct to methotrexate therapy or monotherapy where use of methotrexate is limited by toxicity or intolerance Patient has tried and not responded to at least three months of oral or parenteral methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly or a maximum tolerated dose Patient has tried and not responded to at least three months of oral or parenteral methotrexate in combination with sulfasalazine and hydroxychloroquine sulphate (at maximum tolerated doses) Patient has tried and not responded to at least three months of oral or parenteral methotrexate in combination with the maximum tolerated dose of ciclosporin Patient has tried and not responded to at least three months of oral or parenteral methotrexate in combination with intramuscular gold Patient has tried and not responded to at least three months of therapy at the maximum tolerated dose of leflunomide alone or in combination with oral or parenteral methotrexate Patient has persistent symptoms of poorly controlled and active disease in at least 20 swollen, tender joints Patient has persistent symptoms of poorly controlled and active disease in at least four joints from the following: wrist, elbow, knee, ankle, and either shoulder or hip Patient has a C-reactive protein level greater than 15 mg/L measured no more than one month prior to the date of this application C-reactive protein levels not measured as patient is currently receiving prednisone therapy at a dose of greater than 5 mg per day and has done so for more than three months rheumatologist 6 Treatment is to be used as an adjunct to methotrexate therapy or monotherapy where use of methotrexate is limited by toxicity or intolerance Following 3 to 4 months' initial treatment, the patient has at least a 50% decrease in active joint count from baseline and a clinically significant response to treatment in the opinion of the physician On subsequent reapplications, the patient demonstrates at least a continuing 30% improvement in active joint count from baseline and a clinically significant response to treatment in the opinion of the physician Etanercept to be administered at doses no greater than 50 mg every 7 days rheumatologist 6 The patient has had an initial Special Authority approval for adalimumab for ankylosing spondylitis The patient has experienced intolerable side effects from adalimumab The patient has received insufficient benefit from adalimumab to meet the renewal criteria for adalimumab for ankylosing spondylitis Patient has a confirmed diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis present for more than six months Patient has low back pain and stiffness that is relieved by exercise but not by rest Patient has bilateral sacroiliitis demonstrated by plain radiographs, CT or MRI scan Patient's ankylosing spondylitis has not responded adequately to treatment with two or more non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), in combination with anti-ulcer therapy if indicated, while patient was undergoing at least 3 months of a regular exercise regimen for ankylosing spondylitis Patient has limitation of motion of the lumbar spine in the sagittal and the frontal planes as determined by the following Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Metrology Index (BASMI) measures: a modified Schober's test of less than or equal to 4 cm and lumbar side flexion measurement of less than or equal to 10 cm (mean of left and right) Patient has limitation of chest expansion by at least 2.5 cm below the average normal values corrected for age and gender (see Notes) Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) of at least 6 on a 0-10 scale rheumatologist 6

The BASDAI must have been determined at the completion of the 3 month exercise trial, but prior to ceasing NSAID treatment. The BASDAI measure must be no more than 1 month old at the time of starting treatment.

Average normal chest expansion corrected for age and gender:

Age Male Female
18-24 7.0 cm 5.5 cm
25-34 7.5 cm 5.5 cm
35-44 6.5 cm 4.5 cm
45-54 6.0 cm 5.0 cm
55-64 5.5 cm 4.0 cm
65-74 4.0 cm 4.0 cm
75+ 3.0 cm 2.5 cm
Following 12 weeks' initial treatment and for subsequent renewals, treatment has resulted in an improvement in BASDAI of 4 or more points from pre-treatment baseline on a 10 point scale, or an improvement in BASDAI of 50%, whichever is less Physician considers that the patient has benefited from treatment and that continued treatment is appropriate Etanercept to be administered at doses no greater than 50 mg every 7 days rheumatologist 6 The patient has had an initial Special Authority approval for adalimumab for psoriatic arthritis The patient has experienced intolerable side effects from adalimumab The patient has received insufficient benefit from adalimumab to meet the renewal criteria for adalimumab for psoriatic arthritis Patient has had severe active psoriatic arthritis for six months duration or longer Patient has tried and not responded to at least three months of oral or parenteral methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly or a maximum tolerated dose Patient has tried and not responded to at least three months of sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g per day or leflunomide at a dose of up to 20 mg daily (or maximum tolerated doses) Patient has persistent symptoms of poorly controlled and active disease in at least 15 swollen, tender joints Patient has persistent symptoms of poorly controlled and active disease in at least four joints from the following: wrist, elbow, knee, ankle, and either shoulder or hip Patient has a C-reactive protein level greater than 15 mg/L measured no more than one month prior to the date of this application Patient has an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour ESR and CRP not measured as patient is currently receiving prednisone therapy at a dose of greater than 5 mg per day and has done so for more than three months rheumatologist 6 Following 3 to 4 months' initial treatment, the patient has at least a 50% decrease in active joint count from baseline and a clinically significant response to treatment in the opinion of the physician The patient demonstrates at least a continuing 30% improvement in active joint count from baseline and a clinically significant response to prior etanercept treatment in the opinion of the treating physician Etanercept to be administered at doses no greater than 50 mg every 7 days rheumatologist 6 The patient has had an initial Special Authority approval for adalimumab for severe chronic plaque psoriasis The patient has experienced intolerable side effects from adalimumab The patient has received insufficient benefit from adalimumab to meet the renewal criteria for adalimumab for severe chronic plaque psoriasis Patient must be reassessed for continuation after 3 doses dermatologist 4 Patient has "whole body" severe chronic plaque psoriasis with a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score of greater than 15, where lesions have been present for at least 6 months from the time of initial diagnosis Patient has severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot, where the plaque or plaques have been present for at least 6 months from the time of initial diagnosis Patient has tried, but had an inadequate response (see Note) to, or has experienced intolerable side effects from, at least three of the following (at maximum tolerated doses unless contraindicated): phototherapy, methotrexate, ciclosporin, or acitretin A PASI assessment has been completed for at least the most recent prior treatment course (but preferably all prior treatment courses), preferably while still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of each prior treatment course The most recent PASI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of initiation dermatologist 4

"Inadequate response" is defined as: for whole body severe chronic plaque psoriasis, a PASI score of greater than 15, as assessed preferably while still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment; for severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, hand or foot, at least 2 of the 3 PASI symptom subscores for erythema, thickness and scaling are rated as severe or very severe, and the skin area affected is 30% or more of the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot, as assessed preferably while still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment.

 Patient had "whole body" severe chronic plaque psoriasis at the start of treatment Following each prior etanercept treatment course the patient has a PASI score which is reduced by 75% or more, or is sustained at this level, when compared with the pre-etanercept treatment baseline value Patient had severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot at the start of treatment Following each prior etanercept treatment course the patient has a reduction in the PASI symptom subscores for all 3 of erythema, thickness and scaling, to slight or better, or sustained at this level, as compared to the treatment course baseline values Following each prior etanercept treatment course the patient has a reduction of 75% or more in the skin area affected, or sustained at this level, as compared to the pre-etanercept treatment baseline value Etanercept to be administered at doses no greater than 50 mg every 7 days dermatologist 6 Patient has pyoderma gangrenosum* Patient has received three months of conventional therapy including a minimum of three pharmaceuticals (e.g. prednisone, ciclosporin, azathioprine, or methotrexate) and not received an adequate response A maximum of 4 doses dermatologist

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications.

 Patient has shown clinical improvement Patient continues to require treatment A maximum of 4 doses dermatologist The patient has had an initial Special Authority approval for etanercept for adult-onset Still's disease (AOSD) The patient has been started on tocilizumab for AOSD in a DHB hospital in accordance with the Section H rules The patient has experienced intolerable side effects from etanercept and/or tocilizumab The patient has received insufficient benefit from at least a three-month trial of adalimumab and/or tocilizumab such that they do not meet the renewal criteria for AOSD Patient diagnosed with AOSD according to the Yamaguchi criteria (J Rheumatol 1992;19:424-430) Patient has tried and not responded to at least 6 months of glucocorticosteroids at a dose of at least 0.5 mg/kg, non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and methotrexate Patient has persistent symptoms of disabling poorly controlled and active disease rheumatologist 6 The patient has a sustained improvement in inflammatory markers and functional status rheumatologist 6 Monoclonal Antibodies Bevacizumab <range>Bevacizumab</range> Ocular neovascularisation Exudative ocular angiopathy medical practitioner Ranibizumab <range>Ranibizumab</range> Wet age-related macular degeneration (wet AMD) Polypoidal choroidal vasculopathy Choroidal neovascular membrane from causes other than wet AMD The patient has developed severe endophthalmitis or severe posterior uveitis following treatment with bevacizumab There is worsening of vision or failure of retina to dry despite three intraocular injections of bevacizumab four weeks apart There is no structural damage to the central fovea of the treated eye Patient has not previously been treated with aflibercept for longer than 3 months Patient has current approval to use aflibercept for treatment of wAMD and was found to be intolerant to aflibercept within 3 months ophthalmologist 3 Documented benefit must be demonstrated to continue Patient’s vision is 6/36 or better on the Snellen visual acuity score There is no structural damage to the central fovea of the treated eye ophthalmologist 12 Infliximab <range>Infliximab</range> Patient has steroid-refractory acute graft vs. host disease of the gut medical practitioner The patient has had an initial Special Authority approval for adalimumab and/or etanercept for rheumatoid arthritis The patient has experienced intolerable side effects from a reasonable trial of adalimumab and/or etanercept Following at least a four month trial of adalimumab and/or etanercept, the patient did not meet the renewal criteria for adalimumab and/or etanercept Treatment is to be used as an adjunct to methotrexate therapy or monotherapy where use of methotrexate is limited by toxicity or intolerance rheumatologist 4 Treatment is to be used as an adjunct to methotrexate therapy or monotherapy where use of methotrexate is limited by toxicity or intolerance Following 3 to 4 months' initial treatment, the patient has at least a 50% decrease in active joint count from baseline and a clinically significant response to treatment in the opinion of the physician The patient demonstrates at least a continuing 30% improvement in active joint count from baseline and a clinically significant response to treatment in the opinion of the physician Infliximab to be administered at doses no greater than 3 mg/kg every 8 weeks rheumatologist 6 The patient has had an initial Special Authority approval for adalimumab and/or etanercept for ankylosing spondylitis The patient has experienced intolerable side effects from a reasonable trial of adalimumab and/or etanercept Following 12 weeks of adalimumab and/or etanercept treatment, the patient did not meet the renewal criteria for adalimumab and/or etanercept for ankylosing spondylitis rheumatologist 3 Following 12 weeks of infliximab treatment, BASDAI has improved by 4 or more points from pre-infliximab baseline on a 10 point scale, or by 50%, whichever is less Physician considers that the patient has benefited from treatment and that continued treatment is appropriate Infliximab to be administered at doses no greater than 5 mg/kg every 6-8 weeks rheumatologist 6 The patient has had an initial Special Authority approval for adalimumab and/or etanercept for psoriatic arthritis The patient has experienced intolerable side effects from a reasonable trial of adalimumab and/or etanercept Following 3-4 months' initial treatment with adalimumab and/or etanercept, the patient did not meet the renewal criteria for adalimumab and/or etanercept for psoriatic arthritis. rheumatologist 4 Following 3 to 4 months' initial treatment, the patient has at least a 50% decrease in active joint count from baseline and a clinically significant response to treatment in the opinion of the physician The patient demonstrates at least a continuing 30% improvement in active joint count from baseline and a clinically significant response to prior infliximab treatment in the opinion of the treating physician Infliximab to be administered at doses no greater than 5 mg/kg every 8 weeks rheumatologist 6 Patient has severe, vision-threatening ocular inflammation requiring rapid control Treatment with high-dose steroids (intravenous methylprednisolone) followed by high dose oral steroids has proven ineffective at controlling symptoms Patient developed new inflammatory symptoms while receiving high dose steroids medical practitioner 3 Patient has severe uveitis uncontrolled with treatment of steroids and other immunosuppressants with a severe risk of vision loss Patient is 18 years or older and treatment with at least two other immunomodulatory agents has proven ineffective Patient is under 18 years and treatment with methotrexate has proven ineffective medical practitioner 3 The patient has had a good clinical response following 3 initial doses The patient has had a sustained reduction in inflammation (Standardisation of Uveitis Nomenclature (SUN) criteria < ½+ anterior chamber or vitreous cells, absence of active vitreous or retinal lesions, or resolution of uveitic cystoid macular oedema), following 12 months’ treatment The patient has a sustained steroid sparing effect, allowing reduction in prednisone to <10mg daily, or steroid drops less than twice daily if under 18 years old, following 12 months’ treatment medical practitioner 12

A trial withdrawal should be considered after every 24 months of stability, unless the patient is deemed to have extremely high risk of irreversible vision loss if infliximab is withdrawn.

 The patient has had a good clinical response following 3 initial doses The patient has had a sustained reduction in inflammation (Standardisation of Uveitis Nomenclature (SUN) criteria < ½+ anterior chamber or vitreous cells, absence of active vitreous or retinal lesions, or resolution of uveitic cystoid macular oedema), following 12 months’ treatment The patient has a sustained steroid sparing effect, allowing reduction in prednisone to <10mg daily, or steroid drops less than twice daily if under 18 years old, following 12 months’ treatment medical practitioner 12

A trial withdrawal should be considered after every 24 months of stability, unless the patient is deemed to have extremely high risk of irreversible vision loss if infliximab is withdrawn.

 Patient has life-threatening pulmonary sarcoidosis that is refractory to other treatments Treatment is to be prescribed by, or has been recommended by, a physician with expertise in the treatment of pulmonary sarcoidosis medical practitioner Patient has severe active Crohn's disease Patient has a Crohn's Disease Activity Index (CDAI) score of greater than or equal to 300 Patient has extensive small intestine disease affecting more than 50 cm of the small intestine Patient has evidence of short gut syndrome or would be at risk of short gut syndrome with further bowel resection Patient has an ileostomy or colostomy, and has intestinal inflammation Patient has tried but had an inadequate response to, or has experienced intolerable side effects from, prior systemic therapy with immunomodulators at maximum tolerated doses (unless contraindicated) and corticosteroids Surgery (or further surgery) is considered to be clinically inappropriate Patient must be reassessed for continuation after 3 months of therapy gastroenterologist 3 CDAI score has reduced by 100 points from the CDAI score when the patient was initiated on infliximab CDAI score is 150 or less The patient has demonstrated an adequate response to treatment but CDAI score cannot be assessed Infliximab to be administered at doses up to 5 mg/kg every 8 weeks. Up to 10 mg/kg every 8 weeks (or equivalent) can be used for up to 3 doses if required for secondary non-response to treatment for re-induction. Another re-induction may be considered sixteen weeks after completing the last re-induction cycle gastroenterologist 6 Paediatric patient has severe active Crohn's disease Patient has a Paediatric Crohn's Disease Activity Index (PCDAI) score of greater than or equal to 30 Patient has extensive small intestine disease Patient has tried but had an inadequate response to, or has experienced intolerable side effects from, prior systemic therapy with immunomodulators at maximum tolerated doses (unless contraindicated) and corticosteroids Surgery (or further surgery) is considered to be clinically inappropriate Patient must be reassessed for continuation after 3 months of therapy gastroenterologist 3 PCDAI score has reduced by 10 points from the PCDAI score when the patient was initiated on infliximab PCDAI score is 15 or less The patient has demonstrated an adequate response to treatment but PCDAI score cannot be assessed Infliximab to be administered at doses up to 5 mg/kg every 8 weeks. Up to 10 mg/kg every 8 weeks (or equivalent) can be used for up to 3 doses if required for secondary non-response to treatment for re-induction. Another re-induction may be considered sixteen weeks after completing the last re-induction cycle gastroenterologist 6 Patient has confirmed Crohn's disease Patient has one or more complex externally draining enterocutaneous fistula(e) Patient has one or more rectovaginal fistula(e) gastroenterologist 4 The number of open draining fistulae have decreased from baseline by at least 50% There has been a marked reduction in drainage of all fistula(e) from baseline (in the case of adult patients, as demonstrated by a reduction in the Fistula Assessment score), together with less induration and patient reported pain Infliximab to be administered at doses up to 5 mg/kg every 8 weeks. Up to 10 mg/kg every 8 weeks (or equivalent) can be used for up to 3 doses if required for secondary non-response to treatment for re-induction. Another re-induction may be considered sixteen weeks after completing the last re-induction cycle gastroenterologist 6 Patient has acute, severe fulminant ulcerative colitis Treatment with intravenous or high dose oral corticosteroids has not been successful gastroenterologist 6 Where maintenance treatment is considered appropriate, infliximab should be used in combination with immunomodulators and reassessed every 6 months Infliximab to be administered at doses up to 5 mg/kg every 8 weeks. Up to 10 mg/kg every 8 weeks (or equivalent) can be used for up to 3 doses if required for secondary non-response to treatment for re-induction. Another re-induction may be considered sixteen weeks after completing the last re-induction cycle gastroenterologist 6 Patient has histologically confirmed ulcerative colitis Patient is 18 years or older and the Simple Clinical Colitis Activity Index (SCCAI) is greater than or equal to 4 Patient is under 18 years and the Paediatric Ulcerative Colitis Activity Index (PUCAI) score is greater than or equal to 65 Patient has tried but had an inadequate response to, or has experienced intolerable side effects from, prior systemic therapy with immunomodulators at maximum tolerated doses for an adequate duration (unless contraindicated) and corticosteroids Surgery (or further surgery) is considered to be clinically inappropriate gastroenterologist 3 Patient is continuing to maintain remission and the benefit of continuing infliximab outweighs the risks Patient is 18 years or older and the SCCAI score has reduced by 2 points or more from the SCCAI score when the patient was initiated on infliximab Patient is under 18 years and the PUCAI score has reduced by 30 points or more from the PUCAI score when the patient was initiated on infliximab Infliximab to be administered at doses up to 5 mg/kg every 8 weeks. Up to 10 mg/kg every 8 weeks (or equivalent) can be used for up to 3 doses if required for secondary non-response to treatment for re-induction. Another re-induction may be considered sixteen weeks after completing the last re-induction cycle gastroenterologist 6 The patient has had an initial Special Authority approval for adalimumab or etanercept for severe chronic plaque psoriasis The patient has experienced intolerable side effects from adalimumab or etanercept The patient has received insufficient benefit from adalimumab or etanercept to meet the renewal criteria for adalimumab or etanercept for severe chronic plaque psoriasis Patient has "whole body" severe chronic plaque psoriasis with a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score of greater than 15, where lesions have been present for at least 6 months from the time of initial diagnosis Patient has severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot, where the plaque or plaques have been present for at least 6 months from the time of initial diagnosis Patient has tried, but had an inadequate response (see Note) to, or has experienced intolerable side effects from, at least three of the following (at maximum tolerated doses unless contraindicated): phototherapy, methotrexate, cyclosporin, or acitretin A PASI assessment has been completed for at least the most recent prior treatment course (but preferably all prior treatment courses), preferably while still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of each prior treatment course The most recent PASI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of initiation dermatologist 3

"Inadequate response" is defined as: for whole body severe chronic plaque psoriasis, a PASI score of greater than 15, as assessed preferably while still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment; for severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, hand or foot, at least 2 of the 3 PASI symptom subscores for erythema, thickness and scaling are rated as severe or very severe, and the skin area affected is 30% or more of the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot, as assessed preferably while still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment.

 Patient had "whole body" severe chronic plaque psoriasis at the start of treatment Following each prior infliximab treatment course the patient has a PASI score which is reduced by 75% or more, or is sustained at this level, when compared with the pre-infliximab treatment baseline value Patient had severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot at the start of treatment Following each prior infliximab treatment course the patient has a reduction in the PASI symptom subscores for all 3 of erythema, thickness and scaling, to slight or better, or sustained at this level, as compared to the treatment course baseline values Following each prior infliximab treatment course the patient has a reduction of 75% or more in the skin area affected, or sustained at this level, as compared to the pre-infliximab treatment baseline value Infliximab to be administered at doses no greater than 5 mg/kg every 8 weeks dermatologist 3 Biopsy consistent with diagnosis of neurosarcoidosis Patient has CNS involvement Patient has steroid-refractory disease IV cyclophosphamide has been tried Treatment with IV cyclophosphamide is clinically inappropriate neurologist 18 A withdrawal period has been tried and the patient has relapsed A withdrawal period has been considered but would not be clinically appropriate There has been a marked reduction in prednisone dose There has been an improvement in MRI appearances Marked improvement in other symptomology neurologist 18 The patient has severe Behcet's disease which is significantly impacting the patient’s quality of life (see Notes) The patient has severe ocular, neurological and/or vasculitic symptoms and has not responded adequately to one or more treatment(s) appropriate for the particular symptom(s) (see Notes) The patient has severe gastrointestinal, rheumatologic and/or mucocutaneous symptoms and has not responded adequately to two or more treatment appropriate for the particular symptom(s) (see Notes) The patient is experiencing significant loss of quality of life medical practitioner 4

  1. Behcet’s disease diagnosed according to the International Study Group for Behcet’s Disease. Lancet 1990;335(8697):1078-80. Quality of life measured using an appropriate quality of life scale such as that published in Gilworth et al J Rheumatol. 2004;31:931-7.

  2. Treatments appropriate for the particular symptoms are those that are considered standard conventional treatments for these symptoms, for example intravenous/oral steroids and other immunosuppressants for ocular symptoms; azathioprine, steroids, thalidomide, interferon alpha and ciclosporin for mucocutaneous symptoms; and colchicine, steroids and methotrexate for rheumatological symptoms.

 Patient has had a good clinical response to initial treatment with measurably improved quality of life Infliximab to be administered at doses no greater than 5 mg/kg every 8 weeks medical practitioner 6 Tocilizumab <range>Tocilizumab</range> The patient has had an initial Special Authority approval for adalimumab and/or etanercept for rheumatoid arthritis The patient has experienced intolerable side effects from adalimumab and/or etanercept The patient has received insufficient benefit from at least a three-month trial of adalimumab and/or etanercept such that they do not meet the renewal criteria for rheumatoid arthritis The patient is seronegative for both anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibodies and rheumatoid factor The patient has been started on rituximab for rheumatoid arthritis in a DHB hospital in accordance with the Section H rules The patient has experienced intolerable side effects from rituximab At four months following the initial course of rituximab the patient has received insufficient benefit such that they do not meet the renewal criteria for rheumatoid arthritis Patient has had severe and active erosive rheumatoid arthritis (either confirmed by radiology imaging, or the patient is cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody positive) for six months duration or longer Tocilizumab is to be used as monotherapy Treatment with methotrexate is contraindicated Patient has tried and did not tolerate oral and/or parenteral methotrexate Patient has tried and not responded to at least three months therapy at the maximum tolerated dose of cyclosporin alone or in combination with another agent Patient has tried and not responded to at least three months therapy at the maximum tolerated dose of leflunomide alone or in combination with another agent Patient has persistent symptoms of poorly controlled and active disease in at least 20 active, swollen, tender joints Patient has persistent symptoms of poorly controlled and active disease in at least four active joints from the following: wrist, elbow, knee, ankle, and either shoulder or hip Patient has a C-reactive protein level greater than 15 mg/L measured no more than one month prior to the date of this application C-reactive protein levels not measured as patient is currently receiving prednisone therapy at a dose of greater than 5 mg per day and has done so for more than three months rheumatologist 6 Following 6 months' initial treatment, the patient has at least a 50% decrease in active joint count from baseline and a clinically significant response to treatment in the opinion of the physician On subsequent reapplications, the patient demonstrates at least a continuing 30% improvement in active joint count from baseline and a clinically significant response to treatment in the opinion of the physician rheumatologist 6 Patient diagnosed with systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis Patient has tried and not responded to a reasonable trial of all of the following, either alone or in combination: oral or parenteral methotrexate; non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs); and systemic corticosteroids rheumatologist 6 Following up to 6 months' initial treatment, the patient has achieved at least an American College of Rheumatology paediatric 30% improvement criteria (ACR Pedi 30) response from baseline On subsequent reapplications, the patient demonstrates at least a continuing ACR Pedi 30 response from baseline rheumatologist 6 The patient has had an initial Special Authority approval for adalimumab and/or etanercept for adult-onset Still's disease (AOSD) The patient has been started on tocilizumab for AOSD in a DHB hospital in accordance with the General Rules of the Pharmaceutical Schedule The patient has experienced intolerable side effects from adalimumab and/or etanercept The patient has received insufficient benefit from at least a three-month trial of adalimumab and/or etanercept such that they do not meet the renewal criteria for AOSD Patient diagnosed with AOSD according to the Yamaguchi criteria (J Rheumatol 1992;19:424-430) Patient has tried and not responded to at least 6 months of glucocorticosteroids at a dose of at least 0.5 mg/kg, non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and methotrexate Patient has persistent symptoms of disabling poorly controlled and active disease rheumatologist 6 The patient has a sustained improvement in inflammatory markers and functional status rheumatologist 6 The patient has had an initial Special Authority approval for both etanercept and adalimumab for juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) The patient has experienced intolerable side effects, or has received insufficient benefit from, both etanercept and adalimumab Treatment with a tumour necrosis factor alpha inhibitor is contraindicated Patient has had severe active polyarticular course JIA for 6 months duration or longer Patient has tried and not responded to at least three months of oral or parenteral methotrexate (at a dose of 10-20 mg/m² weekly or at the maximum tolerated dose) in combination with either oral corticosteroids (prednisone 0.25 mg/kg or at the maximum tolerated dose) or a full trial of serial intra-articular corticosteroid injections To be used as an adjunct to methotrexate therapy or monotherapy where use of methotrexate is limited by toxicity or intolerance Patient has persistent symptoms of poorly-controlled and active disease in at least 20 swollen, tender joints Patient has persistent symptoms of poorly-controlled and active disease in at least four joints from the following: wrist, elbow, knee, ankle, shoulder, cervical spine, hip Physician's global assessment indicating severe disease rheumatologist 4 Treatment is to be used as an adjunct to methotrexate therapy or monotherapy where use of methotrexate is limited by toxicity or intolerance Following 3 to 4 months' initial treatment, the patient has at least a 50% decrease in active joint count and an improvement in physician's global assessment from baseline On subsequent reapplications, the patient demonstrates at least a continuing 30% improvement in active joint count and continued improvement in physician's global assessment from baseline rheumatologist 6 Patient has severe HHV-8 negative idiopathic multicentric Castleman's disease Treatment with an adequate trial of corticosteroids has proven ineffective Tocilizumab to be administered at doses no greater than 8 mg/kg IV every 3-4 weeks haematologist rheumatologist 6 The treatment remains appropriate and the patient has a sustained improvement in inflammatory markers and functional status haematologist rheumatologist 12 The patient is enrolled in the Children's Oncology Group AALL1331 trial The patient has developed grade 3 or 4 cytokine release syndrome associated with the administration of blinatumomab for the treatment of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia Tocilizumab is to be administered at doses no greater than 8 mg/kg IV for a maximum of 3 doses paediatric haematologist paediatric oncologist 3 Omalizumab <range>Omalizumab</range> Patient must be aged 6 years or older Patient has a diagnosis of severe asthma Past or current evidence of atopy, documented by skin prick testing or RAST Total serum human immunoglobulin E (IgE) between 76 IU/mL and 1300 IU/ml at baseline Proven adherence with optimal inhaled therapy including high dose inhaled corticosteroid (budesonide 1,600 mcg per day or fluticasone propionate 1,000 mcg per day or equivalent), plus long-acting beta-2 agonist therapy (at least salmeterol 50 mcg bd or eformoterol 12 mcg bd) for at least 12 months, unless contraindicated or not tolerated Patient has received courses of systemic corticosteroids equivalent to at least 28 days treatment in the past 12 months, unless contraindicated or not tolerated Patient has had at least 4 exacerbations needing systemic corticosteroids in the previous 12 months, where an exacerbation is defined as either documented use of oral corticosteroids for at least 3 days or parenteral steroids Patient has an Asthma Control Test (ACT) score of 10 or less Baseline measurements of the patient’s asthma control using the ACT and oral corticosteroid dose must be made at the time of application, and again at around 26 weeks after the first dose to assess response to treatment clinical immunologist respiratory specialist 6 An increase in the Asthma Control Test (ACT) score of at least 5 from baseline A reduction in the maintenance oral corticosteroid dose or number of exacerbations of at least 50% from baseline respiratory specialist 6 Patient must be aged 12 years or older Patient is symptomatic with Urticaria Activity Score 7 (UAS7) of 20 or above Patient has a Dermatology life quality index (DLQI) of 10 or greater Patient has been taking high dose antihistamines (e.g. 4 times standard dose) and ciclosporin (>3 mg/kg day) for at least 6 weeks Patient has been taking high dose antihistamines (e.g. 4 times standard dose) and at least 3 courses of systemic corticosteroids (>20 mg prednisone per day for at least 5 days) in the previous 6 months Patient has developed significant adverse effects whilst on corticosteroids or ciclosporin Treatment to be stopped if inadequate response* following 4 doses Complete response* to 6 doses of omalizumab clinical immunologist dermatologist 6 Patient has previously had a complete response* to 6 doses of omalizumab Patient has previously had a complete response* to 6 doses of omalizumab Patient has relapsed after cessation of omalizumab therapy clinical immunologist dermatologist 6

*Inadequate response defined as less than 50% reduction in baseline UAS7 and DLQI score, or an increase in Urticaria Control Test (UCT) score of less than 4 from baseline. Patient is to be reassessed for response after 4 doses of omalizumab. Complete response is defined as UAS7 less than or equal to 6 and DLQI less than or equal to 5; or UCT of 16. Relapse of chronic urticaria on stopping prednisone/ciclosporin does not justify the funding of omalizumab.

 Siltuximab <range>Siltuximab</range> Patient has severe HHV-8 negative idiopathic multicentric Castleman's Disease Treatment with an adequate trial of corticosteroids has proven ineffective Siltuximab is to be administered at doses no greater than 11 mg/kg every 3 weeks haematologist rheumatologist 6 The treatment remains appropriate and the patient has sustained improvement in inflammatory markers and functional status haematologist rheumatologist 12 Obinutuzumab <range>Obinutuzumab </range> The patient has progressive Binet stage A, B or C CD20+ chronic lymphocytic leukaemia requiring treatment The patient is obinutuzumab treatment naive The patient is not eligible for full dose FCR due to comorbidities with a score > 6 on the Cumulative Illness Rating Scale (CIRS) or reduced renal function (creatinine clearance <70mL/min) Patient has adequate neutrophil and platelet counts* unless the cytopenias are a consequence of marrow infiltration by CLL Patient has good performance status Obinutuzumab to be administered at a maximum cumulative dose of 8,000 mg and in combination with chlorambucil for a maximum of 6 cycles haematologist 6

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia includes small lymphocytic lymphoma. Comorbidity refers only to illness/impairment other than CLL induced illness/impairment in the patient. ’Good performance status’ means ECOG score of 0-1, however, in patients temporarily debilitated by their CLL disease symptoms a higher ECOG (2 or 3) is acceptable where treatment with obinutuzumab is expected to improve symptoms and improve ECOG score to <2.

* greater than or equal to 1.5 x 109/L and platelets greater than or equal to 75 x 109/L

 Pertuzumab <range>Pertuzumab </range> The patient has metastatic breast cancer expressing HER-2 IHC 3+ or ISH+ (including FISH or other current technology) Patient is chemotherapy treatment naive Patient has not received prior treatment for their metastatic disease and has had a treatment free interval of at least 12 months between prior (neo)adjuvant chemotherapy treatment and diagnosis of metastatic breast cancer The patient has good performance status (ECOG grade 0-1) Pertuzumab to be administered in combination with trastuzumab Pertuzumab maximum first dose of 840 mg, followed by maximum of 420 mg every 3 weeks Pertuzumab to be discontinued at disease progression medical practitioner 12 The patient has metastatic breast cancer expressing HER-2 IHC 3+ or ISH+ (including FISH or other current technology) The cancer has not progressed at any time point during the previous 12 months whilst on pertuzumab and trastuzumab medical practitioner 12 Cetuximab <range>Cetuximab</range> Patient has locally advanced, non-metastatic, squamous cell cancer of the head and neck Patient is contraindicated to, or is intolerant of, cisplatin Patient has good performance status To be administered in combination with radiation therapy medical oncologist Aflibercept <range>Aflibercept</range> Wet age-related macular degeneration (wet AMD) Polypoidal choroidal vasculopathy Choroidal neovascular membrane from causes other than wet AMD The patient has developed severe endophthalmitis or severe posterior uveitis following treatment with bevacizumab There is worsening of vision or failure of retina to dry despite three intraocular injections of bevacizumab four weeks apart There is no structural damage to the central fovea of the treated eye Patient has not previously been treated with ranibizumab for longer than 3 months Patient has current approval to use ranibizumab for treatment of wAMD and was found to be intolerant to ranibizumab within 3 months Patient has previously* (*before June 2018) received treatment with ranibizumab for wAMD and disease was stable while on treatment Patient has current approval to use ranibizumab for treatment of wAMD Patient is currently receiving treatment with aflibercept and has documented previous poor response to bevacizumab ophthalmologist 3

Criteria 2.3 and 2.4 will be removed from 1 January 2019.

 Documented benefit must be demonstrated to continue Patient’s vision is 6/36 or better on the Snellen visual acuity score There is no structural damage to the central fovea of the treated eye ophthalmologist 12 Patient has centre involving diabetic macular oedema (DMO) Patient’s disease is non responsive to 4 doses of intravitreal bevacizumab when administered 4-6 weekly Patient has reduced visual acuity between 6/9 – 6/36 with functional awareness of reduction in vision Patient has DMO within central OCT (ocular coherence tomography) subfield >350 micrometers There is no centre-involving sub-retinal fibrosis or foveal atrophy Patient is currently receiving treatment with aflibercept and has documented previous poor response to bevacizumab ophthalmologist 4

Criterion 2 will be removed from 1 January 2019.

 There is stability or two lines of Snellen visual acuity gain There is structural improvement on OCT scan (with reduction in intra-retinal cysts, central retinal thickness, and sub-retinal fluid) Patient’s vision is 6/36 or better on the Snellen visual acuity score There is no centre-involving sub-retinal fibrosis or foveal atrophy After each consecutive 12 months treatment with aflibercept, patient has retrialled with at least one injection of bevacizumab and had no response ophthalmologist 12 Secukinumab <range>Secukinumab</range> The patient has had an initial Special Authority approval for adalimumab or etanercept, or has trialled infliximab in a DHB hospital in accordance with the General Rules of the Pharmaceutical Schedule, for severe chronic plaque psoriasis The patient has experienced intolerable side effects from adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab The patient has received insufficient benefit from adalimumab, etanercept or infliximab A Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) assessment or Dermatology Quality of Life Index (DLQI) assessment has been completed for at least the most recent prior treatment course, preferably while still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of each prior treatment course The most recent PASI or DQLI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application dermatologist 4 Patient’s PASI score has reduced by 75% or more (PASI 75) as compared to baseline PASI prior to commencing secukinumab Patient has a Dermatology Quality of Life Index (DLQI) improvement of 5 or more, as compared to baseline DLQI prior to commencing secukinumab Secukinumab to be administered at a maximum dose of 300 mg monthly dermatologist 6 Patient has "whole body" severe chronic plaque psoriasis with a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score of greater than 10, where lesions have been present for at least 6 months from the time of initial diagnosis Patient has severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot, where the plaque or plaques have been present for at least 6 months from the time of initial diagnosis Patient has tried, but had an inadequate response (see Note) to, or has experienced intolerable side effects from, at least three of the following (at maximum tolerated doses unless contraindicated): phototherapy, methotrexate, ciclosporin, or acitretin A PASI assessment or Dermatology Quality of Life Index (DLQI) assessment has been completed for at least the most recent prior treatment course, preferably while still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of each prior treatment course The most recent PASI or DQLI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of application dermatologist 4

A treatment course is defined as a minimum of 12 weeks of treatment. "Inadequate response" is defined as: for whole body severe chronic plaque psoriasis, a PASI score of greater than 10, as assessed preferably while still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment; for severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, hand or foot, at least 2 of the 3 PASI symptom sub scores for erythema, thickness and scaling are rated as severe or very severe, and the skin area affected is 30% or more of the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot, as assessed preferably while still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment.

 Patient’s PASI score has reduced by 75% or more (PASI 75) as compared to baseline PASI prior to commencing secukinumab Patient has a Dermatology Quality of Life Index (DLQI) improvement of 5 or more, as compared to baseline DLQI prior to commencing secukinumab Secukinumab to be administered at a maximum dose of 300 mg monthly dermatologist 6 Basiliximab <range>Basiliximab</range> For use in solid organ transplants medical practitioner Rituximab <range>Rituximab</range> Patient has mild congenital haemophilia complicated by inhibitors Patient has severe congenital haemophilia complicated by inhibitors and has failed immune tolerance therapy Patient has acquired haemophilia haematologist Patient was previously treated with rituximab for haemophilia with inhibitors An initial response lasting at least 12 months was demonstrated Patient now requires repeat treatment haematologist The patient has B-cell post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder* To be used for a maximum of 8 treatment cycles medical practitioner

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications.

 The patient has had a rituximab treatment-free interval of 12 months or more The patient has B-cell post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder* To be used for no more than 6 treatment cycles medical practitioner

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications.

 The patient has indolent low grade NHL or hairy cell leukaemia* with relapsed disease following prior chemotherapy To be used for a maximum of 6 treatment cycles The patient has indolent, low grade lymphoma or hairy cell leukaemia* requiring first-line systemic chemotherapy To be used for a maximum of 6 treatment cycles medical practitioner 9

'Indolent, low-grade lymphomas' includes follicular, mantle, marginal zone and lymphoplasmacytic/Waldenstrom macroglobulinaemia. *Unapproved indication. 'Hairy cell leukaemia' also includes hairy cell leukaemia variant.

 The patient has had a rituximab treatment-free interval of 12 months or more The patient has indolent, low-grade NHL or hairy cell leukaemia* with relapsed disease following prior chemotherapy To be used for no more than 6 treatment cycles medical practitioner 9

'Indolent, low-grade lymphomas' includes follicular, mantle, marginal zone and lymphoplasmacytic/Waldenstrom macroglobulinaemia. *Unapproved indication. 'Hairy cell leukaemia' also includes hairy cell leukaemia variant.

 The patient has treatment naive aggressive CD20 positive NHL To be used with a multi-agent chemotherapy regimen given with curative intent To be used for a maximum of 8 treatment cycles The patient has aggressive CD20 positive NHL with relapsed disease following prior chemotherapy To be used for a maximum of 6 treatment cycles medical practitioner

'Aggressive CD20 positive NHL' includes large B-cell lymphoma and Burkitt's lymphoma/leukaemia.

 The patient has had a rituximab treatment-free interval of 12 months or more The patient has relapsed refractory/aggressive CD20 positive NHL To be used with a multi-agent chemotherapy regimen given with curative intent To be used for a maximum of 4 treatment cycles medical practitioner

'Aggressive CD20 positive NHL' includes large B-cell lymphoma and Burkitt's lymphoma/leukaemia.

 The patient has progressive Binet stage A, B or C chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) requiring treatment The patient is rituximab treatment naive The patient is chemotherapy treatment naive The patient's disease has relapsed following no more than three prior lines of chemotherapy treatment The patient has had a treatment-free interval of 12 months or more if previously treated with fludarabine and cyclophosphamide chemotherapy The patient has good performance status The patient does not have chromosome 17p deletion CLL Rituximab to be administered in combination with fludarabine and cyclophosphamide or bendamustine for a maximum of 6 treatment cycles It is planned that the patient receives full dose fludarabine and cyclophosphamide (orally or dose equivalent intravenous administration) or bendamustine medical practitioner 12

'Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)' includes small lymphocytic lymphoma. A line of chemotherapy treatment is considered to comprise a known standard therapeutic chemotherapy regimen and supportive treatments. 'Good performance status' means ECOG score of 0-1, however, in patients temporarily debilitated by their CLL disease symptoms a higher ECOG (2 or 3) is acceptable where treatment with rituximab is expected to improve symptoms and improve ECOG score to <2.

 The patient's disease has relapsed following no more than one prior line of treatment with rituximab for CLL The patient has had an interval of 36 months or more since the commencement of initial rituximab treatment The patient does not have chromosome 17p deletion CLL It is planned that the patient receives full dose fludarabine and cyclophosphamide (orally or dose equivalent intravenous administration) or bendamustine Rituximab to be administered in combination with fludarabine and cyclophosphamide or bendamustine for a maximum of 6 treatment cycles medical practitioner 12

'Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)' includes small lymphocytic lymphoma. A line of chemotherapy treatment is considered to comprise a known standard therapeutic chemotherapy regimen and supportive treatments.

 The patient has had an initial community Special Authority approval for at least one of etanercept and/or adalimumab for rheumatoid arthritis The patient has experienced intolerable side effects from a reasonable trial of adalimumab and/or etanercept Following at least a four month trial of adalimumab and/or etanercept, the patient did not meet the renewal criteria for adalimumab and/or etanercept for rheumatoid arthritis Rituximab to be used as an adjunct to methotrexate or leflunomide therapy Patient is contraindicated to both methotrexate and leflunomide, requiring rituximab monotherapy to be used Maximum of two 1,000 mg infusions of rituximab given two weeks apart rheumatologist 4 Treatment with a Tumour Necrosis Factor alpha inhibitor is contraindicated Patient has had severe and active erosive rheumatoid arthritis (either confirmed by radiology imaging, or the patient is cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody positive) for six months duration or longer Patient has tried and not responded to at least three months of oral or parenteral methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly or a maximum tolerated dose Patient has tried and not responded to at least three months of oral or parenteral methotrexate in combination with sulfasalazine and hydroxychloroquine sulphate (at maximum tolerated doses) Patient has tried and not responded to at least three months of oral or parenteral methotrexate in combination with the maximum tolerated dose of cyclosporin Patient has tried and not responded to at least three months of oral or parenteral methotrexate in combination with intramuscular gold Patient has tried and not responded to at least three months of therapy at the maximum tolerated dose of leflunomide alone or in combination with oral or parenteral methotrexate Patient has persistent symptoms of poorly controlled and active disease in at least 20 swollen, tender joints Patient has persistent symptoms of poorly controlled and active disease in at least four joints from the following: wrist, elbow, knee, ankle, and either shoulder or hip Patient has a C-reactive protein level greater than 15 mg/L measured no more than one month prior to the date of this application C-reactive protein levels not measured as patient is currently receiving prednisone therapy at a dose of greater than 5 mg per day and has done so for more than three months Rituximab to be used as an adjunct to methotrexate or leflunomide therapy Patient is contraindicated to both methotrexate and leflunomide, requiring rituximab monotherapy to be used Maximum of two 1,000 mg infusions of rituximab given two weeks apart rheumatologist 4 At 4 months following the initial course of rituximab infusions the patient had between a 30% and 50% decrease in active joint count from baseline and a clinically significant response to treatment in the opinion of the physician At 4 months following the second course of rituximab infusions the patient had at least a 50% decrease in active joint count from baseline and a clinically significant response to treatment in the opinion of the physician At 4 months following the third and subsequent courses of rituximab infusions, the patient demonstrates at least a continuing 30% improvement in active joint count from baseline and a clinically significant response to treatment in the opinion of the physician Rituximab re-treatment not to be given within 6 months of the previous course of treatment Rituximab to be used as an adjunct to methotrexate or leflunomide therapy Patient is contraindicated to both methotrexate and leflunomide, requiring rituximab monotherapy to be used Maximum of two 1,000 mg infusions of rituximab given two weeks apart rheumatologist 4 At 4 months following the initial course of rituximab infusions the patient had at least a 50% decrease in active joint count from baseline and a clinically significant response to treatment in the opinion of the physician At 4 months following the second and subsequent courses of rituximab infusions, the patient demonstrates at least a continuing 30% improvement in active joint count from baseline and a clinically significant response to treatment in the opinion of the physician Rituximab re-treatment not to be given within 6 months of the previous course of treatment Rituximab to be used as an adjunct to methotrexate or leflunomide therapy Patient is contraindicated to both methotrexate and leflunomide, requiring rituximab monotherapy to be used Maximum of two 1,000 mg infusions of rituximab given two weeks apart rheumatologist 4 Patient has cold haemagglutinin disease* Patient has severe disease which is characterized by symptomatic anaemia, transfusion dependence or disabling circulatory symptoms haematologist 4

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications.

 Previous treatment with lower doses of rituximab (100 mg weekly for 4 weeks) have proven ineffective and treatment with higher doses (375 mg/m² weekly for 4 weeks) is now planned Patient was previously treated with rituximab for severe cold haemagglutinin disease* An initial response lasting at least 12 months was demonstrated Patient now requires repeat treatment haematologist 4

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications.

 Patient has warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia* One of the following treatments has been ineffective: steroids (including if patient requires ongoing steroids at doses equivalent to >5 mg prednisone daily), cytotoxic agents (e.g. cyclophosphamide monotherapy or in combination), intravenous immunoglobulin haematologist 4

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications.

 Previous treatment with lower doses of rituximab (100 mg weekly for 4 weeks) have proven ineffective and treatment with higher doses (375 mg/m² weekly for 4 weeks) is now planned Patient was previously treated with rituximab for warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia* An initial response lasting at least 12 months was demonstrated Patient now requires repeat treatment haematologist 4

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications.

 Patient has immune thrombocytopenic purpura* with a platelet count of less than or equal to 20,000 platelets per microlitre Patient has immune thrombocytopenic purpura* with a platelet count of 20,000 to 30,000 platelets per microlitre and significant mucocutaneous bleeding Treatment with steroids and splenectomy have been ineffective Treatment with steroids has been ineffective and splenectomy is an absolute contraindication Other treatments including steroids have been ineffective and patient is being prepared for elective surgery (e.g. splenectomy) haematologist 4

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications.

 Previous treatment with lower doses of rituximab (100 mg weekly for 4 weeks) have proven ineffective and treatment with higher doses (375 mg/m² weekly for 4 weeks) is now planned Patient was previously treated with rituximab for immune thrombocytopenic purpura* An initial response lasting at least 12 months was demonstrated Patient now requires repeat treatment haematologist 4

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications.

 Patient has thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura* and has experienced progression of clinical symptoms or persistent thrombocytopenia despite plasma exchange Patient has acute idiopathic thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura* with neurological or cardiovascular pathology haematologist 4

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications.

 Patient was previously treated with rituximab for thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura* An initial response lasting at least 12 months was demonstrated Patient now requires repeat treatment haematologist 4

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications.

 Patient has autoimmune pure red cell aplasia* associated with a demonstrable B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder haematologist 6

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications.

 Patient was previously treated with rituximab for pure red cell aplasia* associated with a demonstrable B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder and demonstrated an initial response lasting at least 12 months haematologist 6

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications.

 Patient has been diagnosed with ANCA associated vasculitis* The total rituximab dose would not exceed the equivalent of 375 mg/m² of body-surface area per week for a total of 4 weeks Induction therapy with daily oral or pulse intravenous cyclophosphamide has failed to achieve significant improvement of disease after at least 3 months Patient has previously had a cumulative dose of cyclophosphamide >15 g or a further repeat 3 month induction course of cyclophosphamide would result in a cumulative dose >15 g Cyclophosphamide and methotrexate are contraindicated Patient is a female of child-bearing potential Patient has a previous history of haemorrhagic cystitis, urological malignancy or haematological malignancy medical practitioner 4

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications.

 Patient has been diagnosed with ANCA associated vasculitis* Patient has previously responded to treatment with rituximab but is now experiencing an acute flare of vasculitis The total rituximab dose would not exceed the equivalent of 375 mg/m² of body-surface area per week for a total of 4 weeks medical practitioner 4

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications.

 The patient has severe, immediately life- or organ-threatening SLE* The disease has proved refractory to treatment with steroids at a dose of at least 1 mg/kg The disease has relapsed following prior treatment for at least 6 months with maximal tolerated doses of azathioprine, mycophenolate mofetil and high dose cyclophosphamide, or cyclophosphamide is contraindicated Maximum of four 1000 mg infusions of rituximab rheumatologist nephrologist

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications.

 Patient’s SLE* achieved at least a partial response to the previous round of prior rituximab treatment The disease has subsequently relapsed Maximum of two 1000 mg infusions of rituximab rheumatologist nephrologist

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications.

 Patient has been diagnosed with antibody-mediated renal transplant rejection* nephrologist

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications.

 Patient is to undergo an ABO-incompatible renal transplant* nephrologist

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications.

 Patient is a child with SDNS* or FRNS* Treatment with steroids for at least a period of 3 months has been ineffective or associated with evidence of steroid toxicity Treatment with ciclosporin for at least a period of 3 months has been ineffective and/or discontinued due to unacceptable side effects Treatment with mycophenolate for at least a period of 3 months with no reduction in disease relapses The total rituximab dose used would not exceed the equivalent of 375 mg/m² of body surface area per week for a total of 4 weeks nephrologist 4

Indications marked with a * are unapproved indications.

 Patient who was previously treated with rituximab for nephrotic syndrome* Treatment with rituximab was previously successful and has demonstrated sustained response for >6 months, but the condition has relapsed and the patient now requires repeat treatment The total rituximab dose used would not exceed the equivalent of 375 mg/m² of body surface area per week for a total of 4 weeks nephrologist 4

Indications marked with a * are unapproved indications.

 Patient is a child with SRNS* where treatment with steroids and ciclosporin for at least 3 months have been ineffective Treatment with tacrolimus for at least 3 months has been ineffective Genetic causes of nephrotic syndrome have been excluded The total rituximab dose used would not exceed the equivalent of 375 mg/m² of body surface area per week for a total of 4 weeks nephrologist 4

Indications marked with a * are unapproved indications.

 Patient who was previously treated with rituximab for nephrotic syndrome* Treatment with rituximab was previously successful and has demonstrated sustained response for greater than 6 months, but the condition has relapsed and the patient now requires repeat treatment The total rituximab dose used would not exceed the equivalent of 375 mg/m² of body surface area per week for a total of 4 weeks nephrologist 4

Indications marked with a * are unapproved indications.

 Trastuzumab <range>Trastuzumab</range> The patient has early breast cancer expressing HER 2 IHC 3+ or ISH+ (including FISH or other current technology) Maximum cumulative dose of 106 mg/kg (12 months' treatment) 9 weeks' concurrent treatment with adjuvant chemotherapy is planned 12 months' concurrent treatment with adjuvant chemotherapy is planned 12 months' sequential treatment following adjuvant chemotherapy is planned 12 months' treatment with neoadjuvant and adjuvant chemotherapy is planned Other treatment regimen, in association with adjuvant chemotherapy, is planned medical practitioner 12 The patient has metastatic breast cancer expressing HER-2 IHC 3+ or ISH+ (including FISH or other current technology) The patient has not previously received lapatinib treatment for HER-2 positive metastatic breast cancer The patient started lapatinib treatment for metastatic breast cancer but discontinued lapatinib within 3 months of starting treatment due to intolerance The cancer did not progress whilst on lapatinib Trastuzumab will not be given in combination with pertuzumab Trastuzumab to be administered in combination with pertuzumab Patient has not received prior treatment for their metastatic disease and has had a treatment-free interval of at least 12 months between prior (neo)adjuvant chemotherapy treatment and diagnosis of metastatic breast cancer The patient has good performance status (ECOG grade 0-1) Trastuzumab not to be given in combination with lapatinib Trastuzumab to be discontinued at disease progression medical practitioner 12 The patient has metastatic breast cancer expressing HER-2 IHC 3+ or ISH+ (including FISH or other current technology) The patient has not previously received lapatinib treatment for HER-2 positive metastatic breast cancer The patient started lapatinib treatment for metastatic breast cancer but discontinued lapatinib within 3 months of starting treatment due to intolerance The cancer did not progress whilst on lapatinib Trastuzumab will not be given in combination with pertuzumab Trastuzumab to be administered in combination with pertuzumab Patient has not received prior treatment for their metastatic disease and has had a treatment-free interval of at least 12 months between prior (neo)adjuvant chemotherapy treatment and diagnosis of metastatic breast cancer The patient has good performance status (ECOG grade 0-1) Trastuzumab not to be given in combination with lapatinib Trastuzumab to be discontinued at disease progression medical practitioner 12 The patient has metastatic breast cancer expressing HER-2 IHC 3+ or ISH+ (including FISH or other current technology) The cancer has not progressed at any time point during the previous 12 months whilst on trastuzumab Trastuzumab not to be given in combination with lapatinib Trastuzumab to be discontinued at disease progression medical practitioner 12 Adalimumab <range>Adalimumab</range> The patient has had an initial Special Authority approval for etanercept for juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) The patient has experienced intolerable side effects from etanercept The patient has received insufficient benefit from etanercept to meet the renewal criteria for etanercept for JIA Patient diagnosed with Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) To be used as an adjunct to methotrexate therapy or monotherapy where use of methotrexate is limited by toxicity or intolerance Patient has had severe active polyarticular course JIA for 6 months duration or longer Patient has tried and not responded to at least three months of oral or parenteral methotrexate (at a dose of 10-20 mg/m² weekly or at the maximum tolerated dose) in combination with either oral corticosteroids (prednisone 0.25 mg/kg or at the maximum tolerated dose) or a full trial of serial intra-articular corticosteroid injections Patient has persistent symptoms of poorly-controlled and active disease in at least 20 swollen, tender joints Patient has persistent symptoms of poorly-controlled and active disease in at least four joints from the following: wrist, elbow, knee, ankle, shoulder, cervical spine, hip Physician's global assessment indicating severe disease rheumatologist named specialist 6 Treatment is to be used as an adjunct to methotrexate therapy or monotherapy where use of methotrexate is limited by toxicity or intolerance Following 3 to 4 months' initial treatment, the patient has at least a 50% decrease in active joint count and an improvement in physician's global assessment from baseline On subsequent reapplications, the patient demonstrates at least a continuing 30% improvement in active joint count and continued improvement in physician's global assessment from baseline rheumatologist named specialist 6 Patient has confirmed Crohn's disease Patient has one or more complex externally draining enterocutaneous fistula(e) Patient has one or more rectovaginal fistula(e) A Baseline Fistula Assessment (a copy of which is available at www.pharmac.govt.nz/latest/BaselineFistulaAssessment.pdf) has been completed and is no more than 1 month old at the time of application gastroenterologist 4 The number of open draining fistulae have decreased from baseline by at least 50% There has been a marked reduction in drainage of all fistula(e) from baseline as demonstrated by a reduction in the Fistula Assessment score, together with less induration and patient-reported pain gastroenterologist 6 Patient has severe active Crohn's disease Patient has a Crohn's Disease Activity Index (CDAI) score of greater than or equal to 300 Patient has extensive small intestine disease affecting more than 50 cm of the small intestine Patient has evidence of short gut syndrome or would be at risk of short gut syndrome with further bowel resection Patient has an ileostomy or colostomy, and has intestinal inflammation Patient has tried but had an inadequate response to, or has experienced intolerable side effects from, prior systemic therapy with immunomodulators at maximum tolerated doses (unless contraindicated) and corticosteroids Surgery (or further surgery) is considered to be clinically inappropriate gastroenterologist 3 CDAI score has reduced by 100 points from the CDAI score when the patient was initiated on adalimumab CDAI score is 150 or less The patient has demonstrated an adequate response to treatment but CDAI score cannot be assessed Applicant to indicate the reason that CDAI score cannot be assessed Adalimumab to be administered at doses no greater than 40 mg every 14 days gastroenterologist 3 Paediatric patient has severe active Crohn's disease Patient has a Paediatric Crohn's Disease Activity Index (PCDAI) score of greater than or equal to 30 Patient has extensive small intestine disease Patient has tried but had an inadequate response to, or has experienced intolerable side effects from, prior systemic therapy with immunomodulators at maximum tolerated doses (unless contraindicated) and corticosteroids Surgery (or further surgery) is considered to be clinically inappropriate gastroenterologist 3 PCDAI score has reduced by 100 points from the PCDAI score when the patient was initiated on adalimumab PCDAI score is 150 or less The patient has demonstrated an adequate response to treatment but PCDAI score cannot be assessed Adalimumab to be administered at doses no greater than 40 mg every 14 days gastroenterologist 3 The patient has had an initial Special Authority approval for etanercept for rheumatoid arthritis The patient has experienced intolerable side effects from etanercept The patient has received insufficient benefit from etanercept to meet the renewal criteria for etanercept for rheumatoid arthritis Patient has had severe and active erosive rheumatoid arthritis (either confirmed by radiology imaging, or the patient is cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody positive) for six months duration or longer Treatment is to be used as an adjunct to methotrexate therapy or monotherapy where use of methotrexate is limited by toxicity or intolerance Patient has tried and not responded to at least three months of oral or parenteral methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly or a maximum tolerated dose Patient has tried and not responded to at least three months of oral or parenteral methotrexate in combination with sulfasalazine and hydroxychloroquine sulphate (at maximum tolerated doses) Patient has tried and not responded to at least three months of oral or parenteral methotrexate in combination with the maximum tolerated dose of ciclosporin Patient has tried and not responded to at least three months of oral or parenteral methotrexate in combination with intramuscular gold Patient has tried and not responded to at least three months of therapy at the maximum tolerated dose of leflunomide alone or in combination with oral or parenteral methotrexate Patient has persistent symptoms of poorly controlled and active disease in at least 20 swollen, tender joints Patient has persistent symptoms of poorly controlled and active disease in at least four joints from the following: wrist, elbow, knee, ankle, and either shoulder or hip Patient has a C-reactive protein level greater than 15 mg/L measured no more than one month prior to the date of this application C-reactive protein levels not measured as patient is currently receiving prednisone therapy at a dose of greater than 5 mg per day and has done so for more than three months rheumatologist 6 Treatment is to be used as an adjunct to methotrexate therapy or monotherapy where use of methotrexate is limited by toxicity or intolerance Following 3 to 4 months' initial treatment, the patient has at least a 50% decrease in active joint count from baseline and a clinically significant response to treatment in the opinion of the physician On subsequent reapplications, the patient demonstrates at least a continuing 30% improvement in active joint count from baseline and a clinically significant response to treatment in the opinion of the physician Adalimumab to be administered at doses no greater than 40 mg every 14 days rheumatologist 6 The patient has had an initial Special Authority approval for etanercept for ankylosing spondylitis The patient has experienced intolerable side effects from etanercept The patient has received insufficient benefit from etanercept to meet the renewal criteria for etanercept for ankylosing spondylitis Patient has a confirmed diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis present for more than six months Patient has low back pain and stiffness that is relieved by exercise but not by rest Patient has bilateral sacroiliitis demonstrated by plain radiographs, CT or MRI scan Patient's ankylosing spondylitis has not responded adequately to treatment with two or more non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), in combination with anti-ulcer therapy if indicated, while patient was undergoing at least 3 months of a regular exercise regimen for ankylosing spondylitis Patient has limitation of motion of the lumbar spine in the sagittal and the frontal planes as determined by the following Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Metrology Index (BASMI) measures: a modified Schober's test of less than or equal to 4 cm and lumbar side flexion measurement of less than or equal to 10 cm (mean of left and right) Patient has limitation of chest expansion by at least 2.5 cm below the average normal values corrected for age and gender (see Notes) Bath Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Index (BASDAI) of at least 6 on a 0-10 scale rheumatologist 6

The BASDAI must have been determined at the completion of the 3 month exercise trial, but prior to ceasing NSAID treatment. The BASDAI measure must be no more than 1 month old at the time of starting treatment.

Average normal chest expansion corrected for age and gender:

Age Male Female
18-24 7.0 cm 5.5 cm
25-34 7.5 cm 5.5 cm
35-44 6.5 cm 4.5 cm
45-54 6.0 cm 5.0 cm
55-64 5.5 cm 4.0 cm
65-74 4.0 cm 4.0 cm
75+ 3.0 cm 2.5 cm
Following 12 weeks’ initial treatment and subsequent renewals, treatment has resulted in an improvement in BASDAI of 4 or more points from pre-treatment baseline on a 10 point scale, or an improvement in BASDAI of 50%, whichever is less Physician considers that the patient has benefited from treatment and that continued treatment is appropriate Adalimumab to be administered at doses no greater than 40 mg every 14 days rheumatologist 6 The patient has had an initial Special Authority approval for etanercept for psoriatic arthritis The patient has experienced intolerable side effects from etanercept The patient has received insufficient benefit from etanercept to meet the renewal criteria for etanercept for psoriatic arthritis Patient has had severe active psoriatic arthritis for six months duration or longer Patient has tried and not responded to at least three months of oral or parenteral methotrexate at a dose of at least 20 mg weekly or a maximum tolerated dose Patient has tried and not responded to at least three months of sulfasalazine at a dose of at least 2 g per day or leflunomide at a dose of up to 20 mg daily (or maximum tolerated doses) Patient has persistent symptoms of poorly controlled and active disease in at least 15 swollen, tender joints Patient has persistent symptoms of poorly controlled and active disease in at least four joints from the following: wrist, elbow, knee, ankle, and either shoulder or hip Patient has a C-reactive protein level greater than 15 mg/L measured no more than one month prior to the date of this application Patient has an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 25 mm per hour ESR and CRP not measured as patient is currently receiving prednisone therapy at a dose of greater than 5 mg per day and has done so for more than three months rheumatologist 6 Following 3 to 4 months' initial treatment, the patient has at least a 50% decrease in active joint count from baseline and a clinically significant response to treatment in the opinion of the physician The patient demonstrates at least a continuing 30% improvement in active joint count from baseline and a clinically significant response to prior adalimumab treatment in the opinion of the treating physician Adalimumab to be administered at doses no greater than 40 mg every 14 days rheumatologist 6 The patient has had an initial Special Authority approval for etanercept for severe chronic plaque psoriasis The patient has experienced intolerable side effects from etanercept The patient has received insufficient benefit from etanercept to meet the renewal criteria for etanercept for severe chronic plaque psoriasis dermatologist 4 Patient has "whole body" severe chronic plaque psoriasis with a Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score of greater than 15, where lesions have been present for at least 6 months from the time of initial diagnosis Patient has severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot, where the plaque or plaques have been present for at least 6 months from the time of initial diagnosis Patient has tried, but had an inadequate response (see Note) to, or has experienced intolerable side effects from, at least three of the following (at maximum tolerated doses unless contraindicated): phototherapy, methotrexate, ciclosporin, or acitretin A PASI assessment has been completed for at least the most recent prior treatment course (but preferably all prior treatment courses), preferably while still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of each prior treatment course The most recent PASI assessment is no more than 1 month old at the time of initiation dermatologist 4

"Inadequate response" is defined as: for whole body severe chronic plaque psoriasis, a PASI score of greater than 15, as assessed preferably while still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment; for severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, hand or foot, at least 2 of the 3 PASI symptom subscores for erythema, thickness and scaling are rated as severe or very severe, and the skin area affected is 30% or more of the face, palm of a hand or sole of a foot, as assessed preferably while still on treatment but no longer than 1 month following cessation of the most recent prior treatment.

 Patient had "whole body" severe chronic plaque psoriasis at the start of treatment Following each prior adalimumab treatment course the patient has a PASI score which is reduced by 75% or more, or is sustained at this level, when compared with the pre-adalimumab treatment baseline value Patient had severe chronic plaque psoriasis of the face, or palm of a hand or sole of a foot at the start of treatment Following each prior adalimumab treatment course the patient has a reduction in the PASI symptom subscores for all 3 of erythema, thickness and scaling, to slight or better, or sustained at this level, as compared to the treatment course baseline values Following each prior adalimumab treatment course the patient has a reduction of 75% or more in the skin area affected, or sustained at this level, as compared to the pre-etanercept treatment baseline value Adalimumab to be administered at doses no greater than 40 mg every 14 days dermatologist 6 Patient has pyoderma gangrenosum* Patient has received three months of conventional therapy including a minimum of three pharmaceuticals (e.g. prednisone, ciclosporin, azathioprine, or methotrexate) and not received an adequate response A maximum of 4 doses dermatologist

Indications marked with * are unapproved indications.

 Patient has shown clinical improvement Patient continues to require treatment A maximum of 4 doses dermatologist The patient has had an initial Special Authority approval for etanercept for adult-onset Still’s disease (AOSD) The patient has been started on tocilizumab for AOSD in a DHB hospital in accordance with the Section H rules The patient has experienced intolerable side effects from etanercept and/or tocilizumab The patient has received insufficient benefit from at least a three-month trial of etanercept and/or tocilizumab such that they do not meet the renewal criteria for AOSD Patient diagnosed with AOSD according to the Yamaguchi criteria (J Rheumatol 1992;19:424-430) Patient has tried and not responded to at least 6 months of glucocorticosteroids at a dose of at least 0.5 mg/kg, non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and methotrexate Patient has persistent symptoms of disabling poorly controlled and active disease rheumatologist 6 The patient has a sustained improvement in inflammatory markers and functional status rheumatologist 6 Abciximab <range>Abciximab</range> For use in patients with acute coronary syndromes undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention For use in patients undergoing intra-cranial intervention medical practitioner Programmed Cell Death-1 (PD-1) Inhibitors Nivolumab <range>Nivolumab</range> Patient has metastatic or unresectable melanoma stage III or IV Patient has measurable disease as defined by the presence of at least one CT or MRI measurable lesion The patient has ECOG performance score of 0-2 Patient has not received funded pembrolizumab Patient has received an initial Special Authority approval for pembrolizumab and has discontinued pembrolizumab within 12 weeks of starting treatment due to intolerance The cancer did not progress while the patient was on pembrolizumab Nivolumab is to be used at a maximum dose of 3 mg/kg every 2 weeks for a maximum of 12 weeks (6 cycles) Baseline measurement of overall tumour burden is documented (see Note) Documentation confirming that the patient has been informed and acknowledges that the initial funded treatment period of nivolumab will not be continued beyond 12 weeks (6 cycles) if their disease progresses during this time medical oncologist 4 Patient's disease has had a complete response to treatment according to RECIST criteria (see Note) Patient's disease has had a partial response to treatment according to RECIST criteria (see Note) Patient has stable disease according to RECIST criteria (see Note) Response to treatment in target lesions has been determined by radiologic assessment (CT or MRI scan) following the most recent treatment period No evidence of progressive disease according to RECIST criteria (see Note) The treatment remains clinically appropriate and the patient is benefitting from the treatment Nivolumab will be used at a maximum dose of 3 mg/kg every 2 weeks for a maximum of 12 weeks (6 cycles) medical oncologist 4

Disease responses to be assessed according to the Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumours (RECIST) version 1.1 (Eisenhauer EA, et al. Eur J Cancer 2009;45:228-47). Assessments of overall tumour burden and measurable disease to be undertaken on a minimum of one lesion and maximum of 5 target lesions (maximum two lesions per organ). Target lesions should be selected on the basis of their size (lesions with the longest diameter), be representative of all involved organs, and suitable for reproducible repeated measurements. Target lesion measurements should be assessed using CT or MRI imaging with the same method of assessment and the same technique used to characterise each identified and reported lesion at baseline and every 12 weeks.

Response definitions as follows:

  • Complete Response: Disappearance of all target lesions. Any pathological lymph nodes (whether target or non-target) must have reduction in short axis to <10 mm.

  • Partial Response: At least a 30% decrease in the sum of diameters of target lesions, taking as reference the baseline sum diameters.

  • Progressive Disease: At least a 20% increase in the sum of diameters of target lesions, taking as reference the smallest sum on study (this includes the baseline sum if that is the smallest on study). In addition to the relative increase of 20%, the sum must also demonstrate an absolute increase of at least 5 mm. (Note: the appearance of one or more new lesions is also considered progression).

  • Stable Disease: Neither sufficient shrinkage to qualify for partial response nor sufficient increase to qualify for progressive disease.

 Pembrolizumab <range>Pembrolizumab</range> Patient has metastatic or unresectable melanoma stage III or IV Patient has measurable disease as defined by the presence of at least one CT or MRI measurable lesion The patient has ECOG performance score of 0-2 Patient has not received funded nivolumab Patient has received an initial Special Authority approval for nivolumab and has discontinued nivolumab within 12 weeks of starting treatment due to intolerance The cancer did not progress while the patient was on nivolumab Pembrolizumab is to be used at a maximum dose of 2 mg/kg every 3 weeks for a maximum of 12 weeks (4 cycles) Baseline measurement of overall tumour burden is documented (see Note) Documentation confirming that the patient has been informed and acknowledges that the initial funded treatment period of pembrolizumab will not be continued beyond 12 weeks (4 cycles) if their disease progresses during this time medical oncologist 4 Patient's disease has had a complete response to treatment according to RECIST criteria (see Note) Patient's disease has had a partial response to treatment according to RECIST criteria (see Note) Patient has stable disease according to RECIST criteria (see Note) Response to treatment in target lesions has been determined by radiologic assessment (CT or MRI scan) following the most recent treatment period No evidence of progressive disease according to RECIST criteria (see Note) The treatment remains clinically appropriate and the patient is benefitting from the treatment Pembrolizumab will be used at a maximum dose of 2 mg/kg every 3 weeks for a maximum of 12 weeks (4 cycles) medical oncologist 4

Disease responses to be assessed according to the Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumours (RECIST) version 1.1 (Eisenhauer EA, et al. Eur J Cancer 2009;45:228-47). Assessments of overall tumour burden and measurable disease to be undertaken on a minimum of one lesion and maximum of 5 target lesions (maximum two lesions per organ). Target lesions should be selected on the basis of their size (lesions with the longest diameter), be representative of all involved organs, and suitable for reproducible repeated measurements. Target lesion measurements should be assessed using CT or MRI imaging with the same method of assessment and the same technique used to characterise each identified and reported lesion at baseline and every 12 weeks.

Response definitions as follows:

  • Complete Response: Disappearance of all target lesions. Any pathological lymph nodes (whether target or non-target) must have reduction in short axis to <10 mm.

  • Partial Response: At least a 30% decrease in the sum of diameters of target lesions, taking as reference the baseline sum diameters.

  • Progressive Disease: At least a 20% increase in the sum of diameters of target lesions, taking as reference the smallest sum on study (this includes the baseline sum if that is the smallest on study). In addition to the relative increase of 20%, the sum must also demonstrate an absolute increase of at least 5 mm. (Note: the appearance of one or more new lesions is also considered progression).

  • Stable Disease: Neither sufficient shrinkage to qualify for partial response nor sufficient increase to qualify for progressive disease.

 Other Immunosuppressants Antithymocyte globulin (rabbit) Inj 25 mg vial Any 0 Picibanil Inj 100 mg vial Any 0 Everolimus <range>Everolimus</range> Patient has tuberous sclerosis Patient has progressively enlarging sub-ependymal giant cell astrocytomas (SEGAs) that require treatment neurologist oncologist 3 Documented evidence of SEGA reduction or stabilisation by MRI within the last 3 months The treatment remains appropriate and the patient is benefiting from treatment Everolimus to be discontinued at progression of SEGAs neurologist oncologist 12

MRI should be performed at minimum once every 12 months, more frequent scanning should be performed with new onset of symptoms such as headaches, visual complaints, nausea or vomiting, or increase in seizure activity.

Mycophenolate mofetil Inj 500 mg vial CellCept 4 133.33 Cap 250 mg CellCept 100 25.00 Tab 500 mg CellCept 50 25.00 Powder for oral liq 1 g per 5 ml CellCept 165 187.25 Antithymocyte globulin (equine) Inj 50 mg per ml, 5 ml ampoule ATGAM 5 2351.25 Sirolimus <range>Sirolimus</range> For rescue therapy for an organ transplant recipient medical practitioner

Rescue therapy defined as unresponsive to calcineurin inhibitor treatment as defined by refractory rejection; or intolerant to calcineurin inhibitor treatment due to any of the following:

  • GFR < 30 ml/min; or

  • Rapidly progressive transplant vasculopathy; or

  • Rapidly progressive obstructive bronchiolitis; or

  • HUS or TTP; or

  • Leukoencepthalopathy; or

  • Significant malignant disease

 Azathioprine Inj 50 mg vial Imuran 1 60.00 Tab 50 mg Imuran 100 10.58 Tab 25 mg Imuran 100 9.66 Bacillus calmette-guerin (BCG) <range>Bacillus calmette-guerin (BCG)</range> For use in bladder cancer medical practitioner Respiratory System and Allergies Antiallergy Preparations Allergic Emergencies Icatibant <range>Icatibant</range> Supply for anticipated emergency treatment of laryngeal/oro-pharyngeal or severe abdominal attacks of acute hereditary angioedema (HAE) for patients with confirmed diagnosis of C1-esterase inhibitor deficiency The patient has undergone product training and has agreed upon an action plan for self-administration clinical immunologist relevant specialist 12 The treatment remains appropriate and the patient is benefiting from treatment medical practitioner 12 Allergy Desensitisation Bee venom <range>Bee venom</range> RAST or skin test positive Patient has had severe generalised reaction to the sensitising agent medical practitioner Paper wasp venom <range>Paper wasp venom</range> RAST or skin test positive Patient has had severe generalised reaction to the sensitising agent medical practitioner Yellow jacket wasp venom <range>Yellow jacket wasp venom</range> RAST or skin test positive Patient has had severe generalised reaction to the sensitising agent medical practitioner Allergy Prophylactics Sodium cromoglicate Nasal spray 4% Any 0 Beclomethasone dipropionate Nasal spray 50 mcg per dose Alanase 200 5.26 Nasal spray 100 mcg per dose Alanase 200 6.00 Budesonide Nasal spray 50 mcg per dose SteroClear 200 2.59 Nasal spray 100 mcg per dose SteroClear 200 2.87 Ipratropium bromide Aqueous nasal spray 0.03% Univent 15 4.61 Fluticasone propionate Nasal spray 50 mcg per dose Flixonase Hayfever & Allergy 120 1.98 Antihistamines Chlorpheniramine maleate Inj 10 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Any 0 Oral liq 0.4 mg per ml Any 0 Cyproheptadine hydrochloride Tab 4 mg Any 0 Fexofenadine hydrochloride Tab 120 mg Any 0 Tab 180 mg Any 0 Tab 60 mg Any 0 Promethazine hydrochloride Inj 25 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Hospira 5 15.54 Tab 10 mg Allersoothe 50 1.68 Tab 25 mg Allersoothe 50 1.89 Oral liq 1 mg per ml Allersoothe 100 2.69 Cetirizine hydrochloride Oral liq 1 mg per ml Histaclear 200 2.99 Tab 10 mg Zista 100 1.01 Loratadine Oral liq 1 mg per ml Lorfast 120 2.15 Tab 10 mg Lorafix 100 1.28 Anticholinergic Agents Anticholinergic Agents Ipratropium bromide Aerosol inhaler 20 mcg per dose Any 0 Nebuliser soln 250 mcg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Univent 20 3.35 Nebuliser soln 250 mcg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Univent 20 3.52 Anticholinergic Agents with Beta-Adrenoceptor Agonists Salbutamol with ipratropium bromide Aerosol inhaler 100 mcg with ipratropium bromide 20 mcg per dose Any 0 Nebuliser soln 2.5 mg with ipratropium bromide 0.5 mg per 2.5 ml ampoule Duolin 20 5.20 Long-Acting Muscarinic Agents Glycopyrronium

Note: inhaled glycopyrronium treatment must not be used if the patient is also receiving treatment with subsidised tiotropium or umeclidinium.

Powder for inhalation 50 mcg per dose Seebri Breezhaler 30 61.00 Umeclidinium

Note: Umeclidinium must not be used if the patient is also receiving treatment with subsidised inhaled glycopyrronium or tiotropium bromide.

Powder for inhalation 62.5 mcg per dose Incruse Ellipta 30 61.50 Tiotropium bromide

Note: tiotropium treatment must not be used if the patient is also receiving treatment with subsidised inhaled glycopyrronium or umeclidinium.

Powder for inhalation 18 mcg per dose Spiriva 30 50.37 Soln for inhalation 2.5 mcg per dose Spiriva Respimat 60 50.37 Long-Acting Muscarinic Antagonists with Long-Acting Beta-Adrenoceptor Agonists

Note: Combination long acting muscarinic antagonist and long acting beta-2 agonist must not be used if the patient is also receiving treatment with a combination inhaled corticosteroid and long acting beta-2 agonist.

<range>Long-acting muscarinic antagonists with long-acting beta-adrenoceptor agonists</range> Patient has been stabilised on a long acting muscarinic antagonist The prescriber considers that the patient would receive additional benefit from switching to a combination product medical practitioner 2 Patient is compliant with the medication Patient has experienced improved COPD symptom control (prescriber determined) medical practitioner 2 Antifibrotics Antifibrotics Pirfenidone <range>Pirfenidone</range> Patient has been diagnosed with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis by a multidisciplinary team including a radiologist Forced vital capacity is between 50% and 80% predicted Pirfenidone is to be discontinued at disease progression (See Notes) Pirfenidone is not to be used in combination with subsidised nintedanib The patient has not previously received treatment with nintedanib Patient has previously received nintedanib, but discontinued nintedanib within 12 weeks due to intolerance Patient has previously received nintedanib, but the patient’s disease has not progressed (disease progression defined as 10% or more decline in predicted FVC within any 12 month period since starting treatment with nintedanib) respiratory specialist 12 Treatment remains clinically appropriate and patient is benefitting from and tolerating treatment Pirfenidone is not to be used in combination with subsidised nintedanib Pirfenidone is to be discontinued at disease progression (See Note) respiratory specialist 12

disease progression is defined as a decline in percent predicted FVC of 10% or more within any 12 month period.

 Nintedanib <range>Nintedanib</range> Patient has been diagnosed with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis by a multidisciplinary team including a radiologist Forced vital capacity is between 50% and 90% predicted Nintedanib is to be discontinued at disease progression (See Note) Nintedanib is not to be used in combination with subsidised pirfenidone The patient has not previously received treatment with pirfenidone Patient has previously received pirfenidone, but discontinued pirfenidone within 12 weeks due to intolerance Patient has previously received pirfenidone, but the patient’s disease has not progressed (disease progression defined as 10% or more decline in predicted FVC within any 12 month period since starting treatment with pirfenidone) respiratory specialist 12 Treatment remains clinically appropriate and patient is benefitting from and tolerating treatment Nintedanib is not to be used in combination with subsidised pirfenidone Nintedanib is to be discontinued at disease progression (See Note) respiratory specialist 12

disease progression is defined as a decline in percent predicted FVC of 10% or more within any 12 month period.

 Beta-Adrenoceptor Agonists Beta-Adrenoceptor Agonists Terbutaline sulphate Inj 0.5 mg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Any 0 Powder for inhalation 250 mcg per dose Any 0 Salbutamol Aerosol inhaler, 100 mcg per dose Ventolin 200 6.00 200 6.00 SalAir 200 3.80 Inj 1 mg per ml, 5 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 500 mcg per ml, 1 ml ampoule Any 0 Nebuliser soln 1 mg per ml, 2.5 ml ampoule Asthalin 20 3.93 Nebuliser soln 2 mg per ml, 2.5 ml ampoule Asthalin 20 4.03 Oral liq 400 mcg per ml Ventolin 150 20.00 Cough Suppressants Cough Suppressants Pholcodine Oral liq 1 mg per ml Any 0 Decongestants Decongestants Oxymetazoline hydrochloride Aqueous nasal spray 0.25 mg per ml Any 0 Aqueous nasal spray 0.5 mg per ml Any 0 Pseudoephedrine hydrochloride Tab 60 mg Any 0 Sodium chloride with sodium bicarbonate Soln for nasal irrigation Any 0 Xylometazoline hydrochloride Aqueous nasal spray 0.05% Any 0 Aqueous nasal spray 0.1% Any 0 Nasal drops 0.05% Any 0 Nasal drops 0.1% Any 0 Sodium chloride Aqueous nasal spray isotonic Any 0 Inhaled Corticosteroids Inhaled Corticosteroids Beclomethasone dipropionate Aerosol inhaler 50 mcg per dose Beclazone 50 200 8.54 Qvar 200 9.30 Aerosol inhaler 100 mcg per dose Beclazone 100 200 12.50 Qvar 200 15.50 Aerosol inhaler 250 mcg per dose Beclazone 250 200 22.67 Budesonide Nebuliser soln 250 mcg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Any 0 Nebuliser soln 500 mcg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Any 0 Powder for inhalation 100 mcg per dose Any 0 Powder for inhalation 200 mcg per dose Any 0 Powder for inhalation 400 mcg per dose Any 0 Fluticasone Aerosol inhaler 50 mcg per dose Flixotide 120 7.50 Floair 120 4.68 Aerosol inhaler 125 mcg per dose Flixotide 120 13.60 Floair 120 7.22 Aerosol inhaler 250 mcg per dose Flixotide 120 27.20 Floair 120 10.18 Powder for inhalation 50 mcg per dose Flixotide Accuhaler 60 8.67 Powder for inhalation 100 mcg per dose Flixotide Accuhaler 60 13.87 Powder for inhalation 250 mcg per dose Flixotide Accuhaler 60 24.51 Leukotriene Receptor Antagonists Leukotriene Receptor Antagonists Montelukast Tab 5 mg Apo-Montelukast 28 5.50 Tab 4 mg Apo-Montelukast 28 5.25 Tab 10 mg Apo-Montelukast 28 5.65 Long-Acting Beta-Adrenoceptor Agonists Long-Acting Beta-Adrenoceptor Agonists Eformoterol fumarate Powder for inhalation 12 mcg per dose Any 0 Powder for inhalation 6 mcg per dose Any 0 Indacaterol Powder for inhalation 150 mcg per dose Onbrez Breezhaler 30 61.00 Powder for inhalation 300 mcg per dose Onbrez Breezhaler 30 61.00 Salmeterol Powder for inhalation 50 mcg per dose Serevent Accuhaler 60 25.00 Aerosol inhaler 25 mcg per dose Serevent 120 25.00 Meterol 120 9.90 Inhaled Corticosteroids with Long-Acting Beta-Adrenoceptor Agonists Budesonide with eformoterol Aerosol inhaler 100 mcg with eformoterol fumarate 6 mcg Any 0 Aerosol inhaler 200 mcg with eformoterol fumarate 6 mcg Any 0 Powder for inhalation 100 mcg with eformoterol fumarate 6 mcg Any 0 Powder for inhalation 200 mcg with eformoterol fumarate 6 mcg Any 0 Powder for inhalation 400 mcg with eformoterol fumarate 12 mcg Any 0 Fluticasone furoate with vilanterol Powder for inhalation 100 mcg with vilanterol 25 mcg Breo Ellipta 30 44.08 Fluticasone with salmeterol Aerosol inhaler 50 mcg with salmeterol 25 mcg Seretide 120 33.74 RexAir 120 14.58 Aerosol inhaler 125 mcg with salmeterol 25 mcg Seretide 120 44.08 RexAir 120 16.83 Powder for inhalation 100 mcg with salmeterol 50 mcg Seretide Accuhaler 60 33.74 Powder for inhalation 250 mcg with salmeterol 50 mcg Seretide Accuhaler 60 44.08 Mast Cell Stabilisers Mast Cell Stabilisers Nedocromil Aerosol inhaler 2 mg per dose Any 0 Sodium cromoglicate Aerosol inhaler 5 mg per dose Any 0 Methylxanthines Methylxanthines Theophylline Oral liq 80 mg per 15 ml Any 0 Tab long-acting 250 mg Any 0 Caffeine citrate Oral liq 20 mg per ml (caffeine 10 mg per ml) Biomed 25 14.85 Inj 20 mg per ml (caffeine 10 mg per ml), 2.5 ml ampoule Biomed 5 55.75 Aminophylline Inj 25 mg per ml, 10 ml ampoule DBL Aminophylline 5 124.37 Mucolytics and Expectorants Mucolytics and Expectorants Sodium chloride Nebuliser soln 7%, 90 ml bottle Biomed 90 23.50 Dornase alfa <range>Dornase alfa</range> The patient has cystic fibrosis and has been approved by the Cystic Fibrosis Panel medical practitioner Patient is an in-patient The mucus production cannot be cleared by first line chest techniques medical practitioner 4 Patient is an in-patient Patient diagnoses with pleural emphyema medical practitioner 3 Pulmonary Surfactants Pulmonary Surfactants Beractant Soln 200 mg per 8 ml vial Survanta 1 550.00 Poractant alfa Soln 120 mg per 1.5 ml vial Curosurf 1 425.00 Soln 240 mg per 3 ml vial Curosurf 1 695.00 Respiratory Stimulants Respiratory Stimulants Doxapram Inj 20 mg per ml, 5 ml vial Any 0 Sclerosing Agents Sclerosing Agents Talc Powder Any 0 Soln (slurry) 100 mg per ml, 50 ml Any 0 Sensory Organs Anti-Infective Preparations Antibacterials Framycetin sulphate Ear/eye drops 0.5% Any 0 Propamidine isethionate Eye drops 0.1% Any 0 Sulphacetamide sodium Eye drops 10% Any 0 Gentamicin sulphate Eye drops 0.3% Genoptic 5 5 11.40 Chloramphenicol Ear drops 0.5% Any 0 Eye drops 0.5%, single dose Any 0 Eye drops 0.5% Chlorafast 10 0.98 Eye oint 1% Chlorsig 4 2.48 Ciprofloxacin Eye drops 0.3% Ciprofloxacin Teva 5 9.99 Sodium fusidate [Fusidic acid] Eye drops 1% Fucithalmic 5 5.29 Tobramycin Eye oint 0.3% Tobrex 3.5 10.45 Eye drops 0.3% Tobrex 5 11.48 Antifungals Natamycin Eye drops 5% Any 0 Antivirals Aciclovir Eye oint 3% ViruPOS 4.5 14.92 Combination Preparations Dexamethasone with framycetin and gramicidin Ear/eye drops 500 mcg with framycetin sulphate 5 mg and gramicidin 50 mcg per ml Any 0 Dexamethasone with neomycin sulphate and polymyxin B sulphate Eye drops 0.1% with neomycin sulphate 0.35% and polymyxin b sulphate 6,000 u per ml Maxitrol 5 4.50 Eye oint 0.1% with neomycin sulphate 0.35% and polymyxin b sulphate 6,000 u per g Maxitrol 3.5 5.39 Dexamethasone with tobramycin Eye drops 0.1% with tobramycin 0.3% Tobradex 5 12.64 Flumetasone pivalate with clioquinol Ear drops 0.02% with clioquinol 1% Any 0 Ciprofloxacin with hydrocortisone Ear drops ciprofloxacin 0.2% with 1% hydrocortisone Ciproxin HC Otic 10 16.30 Triamcinolone acetonide with gramicidin, neomycin and nystatin Ear drops 1 mg with nystatin 100,000 u, neomycin sulphate 2.5 mg and gramicidin 250 mcg per g Kenacomb 7.5 5.16 Anti-Inflammatory Preparations Corticosteroids Prednisolone acetate Eye drops 0.12% Any 0 Eye drops 1% Prednisolone- AFT 10 3.93 Pred Forte 5 7.00 Fluorometholone Eye drops 0.1% FML 5 3.09 Prednisolone sodium phosphate Eye drops 0.5%, single dose (preservative free) Minims Prednisolone 20 38.50 Dexamethasone Eye drops 0.1% Maxidex 5 4.50 Eye oint 0.1% Maxidex 3.5 5.86 Ocular implant 700 mcg <range>Dexamethasone</range> Patients have diabetic macular oedema with pseudophakic lens Patient has reduced visual acuity of between 6/9 – 6/48 with functional awareness of reduction in vision Patient’s disease has progressed despite 3 injections with bevacizumab Patient is unsuitable or contraindicated to treatment with anti-VEGF agents Dexamethasone implants are to be administered not more frequently than once every 4 months into each eye, and up to a maximum of 3 implants per eye per year ophthalmologist 12 Patient’s vision is stable or has improved (prescriber determined) Dexamethasone implants are to be administered not more frequently than once every 4 months into each eye, and up to a maximum of 3 implants per eye per year ophthalmologist 12 Patients have diabetic macular oedema Patient has reduced visual acuity of between 6/9 – 6/48 with functional awareness of reduction in vision Patient is of child bearing potential and has not yet completed a family Dexamethasone implants are to be administered not more frequently than once every 4 months into each eye, and up to a maximum of 3 implants per eye per year ophthalmologist 12 Patient’s vision is stable or has improved (prescriber determined) Patient is of child bearing potential and has not yet completed a family Dexamethasone implants are to be administered not more frequently than once every 4 months into each eye, and up to a maximum of 3 implants per eye per year ophthalmologist 12 Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs Ketorolac trometamol Eye drops 0.5% Any 0 Diclofenac sodium Eye drops 0.1% Voltaren Ophtha 5 13.80 Decongestants and Antiallergics Antiallergic Preparations Levocabastine Eye drops 0.05% Any 0 Lodoxamide Eye drops 0.1% Lomide 10 8.71 Olopatadine Eye drops 0.1% Patanol 5 10.00 Sodium cromoglicate Eye drops 2% Any 0 Decongestants Naphazoline hydrochloride Eye drops 0.1% Naphcon Forte 15 4.15 Diagnostic and Surgical Preparations Diagnostic Dyes Fluorescein sodium with lignocaine hydrochloride Eye drops 0.25% with lignocaine hydrochloride 4%, single dose Any 0 Lissamine green Ophthalmic strips 1.5 mg Any 0 Rose bengal sodium Ophthalmic strips 1% Any 0 Fluorescein sodium Eye drops 2%, single dose Any 0 Ophthalmic strips 1 mg Any 0 Inj 10%, 5 ml vial Fluorescite 12 125.00 Irrigation Solutions Mixed salt solution for eye irrigation Eye irrigation solution calcium chloride 0.048% with magnesium chloride 0.03%, potassium chloride 0.075%, sodium acetate 0.39%, sodium chloride 0.64% and sodium citrate 0.17%, 15 ml dropper bottle Balanced Salt Solution 15 5.00 Eye irrigation solution calcium chloride 0.048% with magnesium chloride 0.03%, potassium chloride 0.075%, sodium acetate 0.39%, sodium chloride 0.64% and sodium citrate 0.17%, 250 ml e.g. Balanced Salt Solution 0 Eye irrigation solution calcium chloride 0.048% with magnesium chloride 0.03%, potassium chloride 0.075%, sodium acetate 0.39%, sodium chloride 0.64% and sodium citrate 0.17%, 500 ml bottle Balanced Salt Solution 500 10.50 Ocular Anaesthetics Oxybuprocaine hydrochloride Eye drops 0.4%, single dose Any 0 Tetracaine [Amethocaine] hydrochloride Eye drops 0.5%, single dose Any 0 Eye drops 1%, single dose Any 0 Proxymetacaine hydrochloride Eye drops 0.5% Any 0 Viscoelastic Substances Sodium hyaluronate [Hyaluronic acid] with chondroitin sulphate Inj 30 mg per ml with chondroitin sulphate 40 mg per ml, 0.35 ml syringe and inj 10 mg sodium hyaluronate [hyaluronic acid] per ml, 0.4 ml syringe Duovisc 1 64.00 Inj 30 mg per ml with chondroitin sulphate 40 mg per ml, 0.5 ml syringe and inj 10 mg sodium hyaluronate [hyaluronic acid] per ml, 0.55 ml syringe Duovisc 1 74.00 Inj 30 mg per ml with chondroitin sulphate 40 mg per ml, 0.75 ml syringe Viscoat 1 67.00 Sodium hyaluronate [Hyaluronic acid] Inj 23 mg per ml, 0.6 ml syringe Healon 5 1 60.00 Inj 10 mg per ml, 0.85 ml syringe Healon 1 28.50 Inj 14 mg per ml, 0.55 ml syringe Healon GV 1 50.00 Inj 14 mg per ml, 0.85 ml syringe Healon GV 1 50.00 Hypromellose Inj 2%, 1 ml syringe Any 0 Inj 2%, 2 ml syringe Any 0 Other Disodium edetate Inj 150 mg per ml, 100 ml vial Any 0 Inj 150 mg per ml, 20 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 150 mg per ml, 20 ml vial Any 0 Riboflavin 5-phosphate Inj 0.1% Any 0 1 Inj 0.1% plus 20% dextran T500 Any 0 1 Soln trans epithelial riboflavin Any 0 Glaucoma Preparations Beta Blockers Betaxolol Eye drops 0.25% Betoptic S 5 11.80 Eye drops 0.5% Betoptic 5 7.50 Timolol Eye drops 0.25% Arrow-Timolol 5 1.43 Eye drops 0.25%, gel forming Timoptol XE 2.5 3.30 Eye drops 0.5% Arrow-Timolol 5 1.43 Eye drops 0.5%, gel forming Timoptol XE 2.5 3.78 Levobunolol hydrochloride Eye drops 0.5% Betagan 5 7.00 Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors Brinzolamide Eye drops 1% Any 0 Dorzolamide Eye drops 2% Any 0 Acetazolamide Inj 500 mg Any 0 Tab 250 mg Diamox 100 17.03 Dorzolamide with timolol Eye drops 2% with timolol 0.5% Arrow-Dortim 5 3.45 Miotics Acetylcholine chloride Inj 20 mg vial with diluent Any 0 Pilocarpine hydrochloride Eye drops 1% Isopto Carpine 15 4.26 Eye drops 2% Isopto Carpine 15 5.35 Eye drops 2%, single dose Any 0 Eye drops 4% Isopto Carpine 15 7.99 Prostaglandin Analogues Bimatoprost Eye drops 0.03% Bimatoprost Actavis 3 3.65 Travoprost Eye drops 0.004% Travopt 5 7.30 Latanoprost Eye drops 0.005% Hysite 2.5 1.50 Sympathomimetics Apraclonidine Eye drops 0.5% Iopidine 5 19.77 Brimonidine tartrate with timolol Eye drops 0.2% with timolol 0.5% Any 0 Brimonidine tartrate Eye drops 0.2% Arrow-Brimonidine 5 4.29 Mydriatics and Cycloplegics Anticholinergic Agents Cyclopentolate hydrochloride Eye drops 0.5%, single dose Any 0 Eye drops 1% Cyclogyl 15 8.76 Eye drops 1%, single dose Any 0 Atropine sulphate Eye drops 0.5% Any 0 Eye drops 1%, single dose Any 0 Eye drops 1% Atropt 15 17.36 Tropicamide Eye drops 0.5%, single dose Any 0 Eye drops 1%, single dose Any 0 Eye drops 0.5% Mydriacyl 15 7.15 Eye drops 1% Mydriacyl 15 8.66 Sympathomimetics Phenylephrine hydrochloride Eye drops 10%, single dose Any 0 Eye drops 2.5%, single dose Any 0 Ocular Lubricants Ocular Lubricants Carbomer Ophthalmic gel 0.2% Any 0 Ophthalmic gel 0.3%, single dose Poly Gel 30 8.25 Carmellose sodium with pectin and gelatine Eye drops 0.5% Any 0 Eye drops 0.5%, single dose Any 0 Eye drops 1% Any 0 Eye drops 1%, single dose Any 0 Hypromellose with dextran Eye drops 0.3% with dextran 0.1% Poly-Tears 15 2.30 Eye drops 0.3% with dextran 0.1%, single dose Any 0 Paraffin liquid with wool fat Eye oint 3% with wool fat 3% Poly-Visc 3.5 3.63 Polyvinyl alcohol with povidone Eye drops 1.4% with povidone 0.6%, single dose Any 0 Retinol Palmitate Oint 138 mcg per g VitA-POS 5 3.80 Macrogol 400 and propylene glycol Eye drops 0.4% with propylene glycol 0.3% preservative free, single dose Systane Unit Dose 24 4.30 Sodium hyaluronate [Hyaluronic acid] Eye drops 1 mg per ml Hylo-Fresh 10 22.00 Polyvinyl alcohol Eye drops 1.4% Vistil 15 2.62 Eye drops 3% Vistil Forte 15 3.68 Hypromellose Eye drops 0.5% Methopt 15 3.92 Paraffin liquid with soft white paraffin Eye oint 42.5% with soft white paraffin 57.3% Any 0 Other Otological Preparations Other Otological Preparations Acetic acid with propylene glycol Ear drops 2.3% with propylene glycol 2.8% Any 0 Docusate sodium Ear drops 0.5% Any 0 Various Agents Used in the Treatment of Poisonings Antidotes Digoxin immune Fab Inj 38 mg vial Any 0 Inj 40 mg vial Any 0 Ethanol with glucose Inj 10% with glucose 5%, 500 ml bottle Any 0 Ethanol, dehydrated Inj 100%, 5 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 96% Any 0 Pralidoxime iodide Inj 25 mg per ml, 20 ml ampoule Any 0 Sodium nitrite Inj 30 mg per ml, 10 ml ampoule Any 0 Sodium thiosulfate Inj 250 mg per ml, 10 ml vial Any 0 Inj 500 mg per ml, 10 ml vial Any 0 Inj 500 mg per ml, 20 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 250 mg per ml. 50 ml vial Any 0 Soya oil Inj 20%, 500 ml bag Any 0 Inj 20%, 500 ml bottle Any 0 Ethanol Liq 96% Any 0 Flumazenil Inj 0.1 mg per ml, 5 ml ampoule Anexate 5 85.05 Hameln 5 66.34 Naloxone hydrochloride Inj 400 mcg per ml, 1 ml ampoule DBL Naloxone Hydrochloride 5 22.60 Hydroxocobalamin Inj 2.5 g vial Any 0 Inj 5 g vial Any 0 Acetylcysteine Tab eff 200 mg Any 0 Inj 200 mg per ml, 10 ml ampoule DBL Acetylcysteine 10 58.76 Antitoxins Botulism antitoxin Inj 250 ml vial Any 0 Diphtheria antitoxin Inj 10,000 iu vial Any 0 Antivenoms Red back spider antivenom Inj 500 u vial Any 0 Snake antivenom Inj 50 ml vial Any 0 Removal and Elimination Dicobalt edetate Inj 15 mg per ml, 20 ml ampoule Any 0 Dimercaprol Inj 50 mg per ml, 2 ml ampoule Any 0 Dimercaptosuccinic acid Cap 100 mg e.g. PCNZ, Optimus Healthcare, Chemet 0 Cap 200 mg e.g. PCNZ, Optimus Healthcare, Chemet 0 Sodium calcium edetate Inj 200 mg per ml, 2.5 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 200 mg per ml, 5 ml ampoule Any 0 Deferasirox <range>Deferasirox</range> The patient has been diagnosed with chronic iron overload due to congenital inherited anaemia Deferasirox is to be given at a daily dose not exceeding 40 mg/kg/day Treatment with maximum tolerated doses of deferiprone monotherapy or deferiprone and desferrioxamine combination therapy have proven ineffective as measured by serum ferritin levels, liver or cardiac MRI T2* Treatment with deferiprone has resulted in severe persistent vomiting or diarrhoea Treatment with deferiprone has resulted in arthritis Treatment with deferiprone is contraindicated due to a history of agranulocytosis (defined as an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of < 0.5 cells per µL) or recurrent episodes (greater than 2 episodes) of moderate neutropenia (ANC 0.5 - 1.0 cells per µL) haematologist 2 For the first renewal following 2 years of therapy, the treatment has been tolerated and has resulted in clinical improvement in all three parameters namely serum ferritin, cardiac MRI T2* and liver MRI T2* levels For subsequent renewals, the treatment has been tolerated and has resulted in clinical stability or continued improvement in all three parameters namely serum ferritin, cardiac MRI T2* and liver MRI T2* levels. haematologist 2 Desferrioxamine mesilate Inj 500 mg vial Desferal 10 51.52 Charcoal Oral liq 200 mg per ml Carbasorb-X 250 43.50 Deferiprone <range>Deferiprone</range> Patient has been diagnosed with chronic iron overload due to congenital inherited anaemia or acquired red cell aplasia medical practitioner Antiseptics and Disinfectants Antiseptics and Disinfectants Povidone-iodine with ethanol Soln 10% with ethanol 30% Betadine Skin Prep 500 10.00 Soln 10% with ethanol 70% Any 0 Sodium hypochlorite Soln Any 0 Chlorhexidine Soln 4% healthE 50 1.86 Soln 5% healthE 500 15.50 Povidone-iodine Pad 10% Any 0 Soln 5% Any 0 Soln 7.5% Any 0 Swab set 10% Any 0 Soln 10% Betadine 500 6.20 Riodine 100 2.95 500 6.20 Oint 10% Betadine 25 3.27 Vaginal tab 200 mg <range>Povidone-iodine - Vaginal tab 200 mg</range> Rectal administration pre-prostate biopsy medical practitioner Chlorhexidine with cetrimide Crm 0.1% with cetrimide 0.5% Any 0 Foaming soln 0.5% with cetrimide 0.5% Any 0 Chlorhexidine with ethanol Soln 0.5% with ethanol 70%, non-staining (pink) 100 ml healthE 1 2.65 Soln 2% with ethanol 70%, non-staining (pink) 100 ml healthE 1 3.54 Soln 0.5% with ethanol 70%, staining (red) 100 ml healthE 1 2.90 Soln 0.5% with ethanol 70%, non-staining (pink) 500 ml healthE 1 5.45 Soln 0.5% with ethanol 70%, staining (red) 500 ml healthE 1 5.90 Soln 0.5% with ethanol 70%, non-staining (pink) 25 ml healthE 1 1.55 Soln 2% with ethanol 70%, staining (red) 100 ml healthE 1 3.86 Soln 2% with ethanol 70%, staining (red) 500 ml healthE 1 9.56 Iodine with ethanol Soln 1% with ethanol 70%, 100 ml healthE 1 9.30 Isopropyl alcohol Soln 70%, 500 ml healthE 1 5.65 Contrast Media Iodinated X-ray Contrast Media Iodised oil Inj 38% w/w (480 mg per ml), 10 ml ampoule Lipiodol Ultra Fluid 1 280.00 Iodixanol Inj 270 mg per ml (iodine equivalent), 50 ml bottle Visipaque 10 220.00 Inj 270 mg per ml (iodine equivalent), 100 ml bottle Visipaque 10 430.00 Inj 320 mg per ml (iodine equivalent), 50 ml bottle Visipaque 10 220.00 Inj 320 mg per ml (iodine equivalent), 100 ml bottle Visipaque 10 430.00 Inj 320 mg per ml (iodine equivalent), 200 ml bottle Visipaque 10 850.00 Iohexol Inj 240 mg per ml (iodine equivalent), 50 ml bottle Omnipaque 10 75.00 Inj 300 mg per ml (iodine equivalent), 20 ml bottle Omnipaque 10 57.00 Inj 300 mg per ml (iodine equivalent), 50 ml bottle Omnipaque 10 75.00 Inj 300 mg per ml (iodine equivalent), 100 ml bottle Omnipaque 10 150.00 Inj 350 mg per ml (iodine equivalent), 20 ml bottle Omnipaque 10 59.00 Inj 350 mg per ml (iodine equivalent), 50 ml bottle Omnipaque 10 75.00 Inj 350 mg per ml (iodine equivalent), 75 ml bottle Omnipaque 10 114.00 Inj 350 mg per ml (iodine equivalent), 100 ml bottle Omnipaque 10 150.00 Inj 350 mg per ml (iodine equivalent), 200 ml bottle Omnipaque 10 290.00 Diatrizoate meglumine with sodium amidotrizoate Inj 260 mg with sodium amidotrizoate 40 mg per ml, 250 ml bottle Urografin 1 80.00 Oral liq 660 mg per ml with sodium amidotrizoate 100 mg per ml, 100 ml bottle Gastrografin 100 22.50 Diatrizoate sodium Oral liq 370 mg per ml, 10 ml sachet Ioscan 50 156.12 50 156.12 Non-iodinated X-ray Contrast Media Citric acid with sodium bicarbonate Powder 382.2 mg per g with sodium bicarbonate 551.3 mg per g, 4 g sachet e.g. E-Z-GAS II 0 Barium sulphate with sodium bicarbonate Grans eff 382.2 mg per g with sodium bicarbonate 551.3 mg per g, 4 g sachet E-Z-Gas II 50 102.93 Barium sulphate Oral liq 22 mg per g (2.2% w/w), 250 ml bottle CT Plus+ 24 175.00 Oral liq 22 mg per g (2.2% w/w), 450 ml bottle CT Plus+ 24 220.00 Oral liq 1 mg per ml (0.1% w/v, 0.1% w/w), 450 ml bottle VoLumen 24 441.12 Oral liq 20.9 mg per ml (2.1% w/v, 2% w/w), 250 ml bottle Readi-CAT 2 24 140.94 Oral liq 400 mg per ml (40% w/v, 30% w/w), 20 ml bottle Tagitol V 3 52.35 Oral liq 400 mg per ml (40% w/v), bottle Varibar - Nectar 240 38.40 Varibar - Honey 250 155.35 Varibar - Pudding 230 145.04 Oral liq 400 mg per ml (40% w/v, 30% w/w), bottle Varibar - Thin Liquid 148 17.39 Oral liq 600 mg per g (60% w/w), tube E-Z-Paste 454 36.51 Oral liq 1,250 mg per ml (125% w/v), 2,000 ml bottle Liquibar 1 91.77 Powder for oral liq 20 mg per g (2% w/w), 22.1 g sachet E-Z-Cat Dry 50 507.50 Powder for oral soln 97.65% w/w, 300 g bottle X-Opaque-HD 24 237.76 Enema 1,250 mg per ml (125% w/v), 500 ml bag Liquibar 12 282.30 Paramagnetic Contrast Media Gadobenic acid Inj 334 mg per ml, 10 ml vial Multihance 10 324.74 Inj 334 mg per ml, 20 ml vial Multihance 10 636.28 Gadoteric acid Inj 279.32 mg per ml (0.5 mmol per ml), 10 ml bottle Dotarem 1 23.20 Inj 279.32 mg per ml (0.5 mmol per ml), 20 ml bottle Dotarem 1 46.30 Inj 279.32 mg per ml (0.5 mmol per ml), 5 ml bottle Dotarem 1 12.30 Inj 279.32 mg per ml (0.5 mmol per ml), 10 ml prefilled syringe Dotarem 1 24.50 Inj 279.32 mg per ml (0.5 mmol per ml), 20 ml prefilled syringe Dotarem 1 55.00 Inj 279.32 mg per ml (0.5 mmol per ml), 15 ml prefilled syringe Dotarem 1 41.00 Inj 279.32 mg per ml (0.5 mmol per ml), 15 ml bottle Dotarem 1 34.50 Gadoxetate disodium Inj 181.43 mg per ml (equivalent to 0.25 mmol per ml), 10 ml prefilled syringe Primovist 1 300.00 Meglumine iotroxate Inj 105 mg per ml, 100 ml bottle Biliscopin 100 150.00 Meglumine gadopentetate Inj 469 mg per ml, 10 ml prefilled syringe Magnevist 5 95.00 Inj 469 mg per ml, 10 ml vial Magnevist 10 185.00 Gadobutrol Inj 1 mmol per ml, 15 ml vial Any 0 Inj 604.72 mg per ml (equivalent to 1 mmol per ml), 7.5 ml prefilled syringe Gadovist 1.0 5 180.00 Inj 604.72 mg per ml (equivalent to 1 mmol per ml), 15 ml prefilled syringe Gadovist 1.0 10 700.00 Inj 604.72 mg per ml (equivalent to 1 mmol per ml), 5 ml prefilled syringe Gadovist 1.0 5 120.00 Gadodiamide Inj 287 mg per ml, 5 ml vial Omniscan 10 120.00 Inj 287 mg per ml, 10 ml vial Omniscan 10 170.00 Inj 287 mg per ml, 10 ml prefilled syringe Omniscan 10 1 200.00 Inj 287 mg per ml, 15 ml prefilled syringe Omniscan 10 320.00 Ultrasound Contrast Media Perflutren Inj 1.1 mg per ml, 1.5 ml vial Definity 4 720.00 1 180.00 Diagnostic Agents Diagnostic Agents Arginine Inj 100 mg per ml, 300 ml bottle Any 0 Inj 50 mg per ml, 500 ml bottle Any 0 Histamine acid phosphate Nebuliser soln 0.6%, 10 ml vial Any 0 Nebuliser soln 2.5%, 10 ml vial Any 0 Nebuliser soln 5%, 10 ml vial Any 0 Secretin pentahydrochloride Inj 100 u ampoule Any 0 Sincalide Inj 5 mcg per vial Any 0 Methacholine chloride Powder 100 mg Any 0 Mannitol Powder for inhalation e.g. Aridol 0 Diagnostic Dyes Bonney's blue dye Soln Any 0 Indigo carmine Inj 4 mg per ml, 5 ml ampoule Any 0 Inj 8 mg per ml, 5 ml ampoule Any 0 Indocyanine green Inj 25 mg vial Any 0 Methylthioninium chloride [Methylene blue] Inj 5 mg per ml, 10 ml ampoule Proveblue 5 240.35 Patent blue V Inj 2.5%, 2 ml ampoule Obex Medical 5 440.00 Irrigation Solutions Irrigation Solutions Sodium chloride Irrigation soln 0.9%, 1,000 ml bottle Baxter Sodium Chloride 0.9% 10 14.90 Irrigation soln 0.9%, 30 ml ampoule Interpharma 20 7.00 Irrigation soln 0.9%, 250 ml bottle Fresenius Kabi 12 17.64 Irrigation soln 0.9%, 3,000 ml bag B Braun 4 26.80 Water Irrigation soln, 1,000 ml bottle Baxter Water for Irrigation 10 17.30 Irrigation soln, 250 ml bottle Fresenius Kabi 12 17.64 Irrigation soln, 3,000 ml bag B Braun 4 28.80 Chlorhexidine with cetrimide Irrigation soln 0.015% with cetrimide 0.15%, 30 ml ampoule Pfizer 30 29.76 Glycine Irrigation soln 1.5%, 3,000 ml bag B Braun 4 31.20 Surgical Preparations Surgical Preparations Bismuth subnitrate and iodoform paraffin Paste Any 0 Dimethyl sulfoxide Soln 50% Any 0 Soln 99% Any 0 Phenol Inj 6%, 10 ml ampoule Any 0 Phenol with ioxaglic acid Inj 12%, 10 ml ampoule Any 0 Trometamol Inj 36 mg per ml, 500 ml bottle Any 0 Cardioplegia Solutions Electrolytes Inj 110 mmol/l sodium, 16 mmol/l potassium, 1.2 mmol/l calcium, 16 mmol/l magnesium and 160 mmol/l chloride, 1,000 ml bag e.g. Cardioplegia Solution AHB7832 0 Inj 143 mmol/l sodium, 16 mmol/l potassium, 16 mmol/l magnesium and 1.2 mmol/l calcium, 1,000 ml bag e.g. Cardioplegia Electrolyte Solution 0 Inj aspartic acid 10.43 mg per ml, citric acid 0.22476 mg per ml, glutamic acid 11.53 mg per ml, sodium phosphate 0.1725 mg per ml, potassium chloride 2.15211 mg per ml, sodium citrate 1.80768 mg per ml, sodium hydroxide 6.31 mg per ml and trometamol 11.2369 mg per ml, 364 ml bag e.g. Cardioplegia Enriched Paed. Soln. 0 Inj aspartic acid 8.481 mg per ml, citric acid 0.8188 mg per ml, glutamic acid 9.375 mg per ml, sodium phosphate 0.6285 mg per ml, potassium chloride 2.5 mg per ml, sodium citrate 6.585 mg per ml, sodium hydroxide 5.133 mg per ml and trometamol 9.097 mg per ml, 527 ml bag e.g. Cardioplegia Enriched Solution 0 Inj citric acid 0.07973 mg per ml, sodium phosphate 0.06119 mg per ml, potassium chloride 2.181 mg per ml, sodium chloride 1.788 mg ml, sodium citrate 0.6412 mg per ml and trometamol 5.9 mg per ml, 523 ml bag e.g. Cardioplegia Base Solution 0 Inj 15 mmol/l sodium chloride, 9 mmol/l potassium chloride, 1 mmol/l potassium hydrogen 2-ketoglutarate, 4 mmol/l magnesium chloride, 18 mmol/l histidine hydrochloride, 180 mmol/l histidine, 2 mmol/l tryptophan, 30 mmol/l mannitol, 0.015 mmol/l calcium chloride, 1,000 ml bag e.g. Custodiol-HTK 0 Monosodium glutamate with sodium aspartate Inj 42.68 mg with sodium aspartate 39.48 mg per ml, 250 ml bottle Any 0 Monosodium l-aspartate Inj 14 mmol per 10 ml, 10 ml Any 0 Cold Storage Solutions Sodium with potassium Inj 29 mmol/l with potassium 125 mmol/l, 1,000 ml bag Any 0 Extemporaneously Compounded Preparations Extemporaneously Compounded Preparations Extemporaneously Compounded Preparations Acetic acid Liq Any 0 Alum Powder BP Any 0 Arachis oil [Peanut oil] Liq Any 0 Benzoin Tincture compound BP Any 0 Bismuth subgallate Powder Any 0 Boric acid Powder Any 0 Carboxymethylcellulose Soln 1.5% Any 0 Cetrimide Soln 40% Any 0 Chloroform Liq BP Any 0 Citric acid Powder BP Any 0 Clove oil Liq Any 0 Coal tar Soln BP Midwest 200 32.95 Collodion flexible Liq Any 0 Compound hydroxybenzoate Soln Any 0 Cysteamine hydrochloride Powder Any 0 Disodium hydrogen phosphate with sodium dihydrogen phosphate Inj 37.46 mg with sodium dihydrogen phosphate 47.7 mg in 1.5 ml ampoule Any 0 Dithranol Powder Any 0 Lactose Powder Any 0 Magnesium hydroxide Paste Any 0 Menthol Crystals Any 0 Olive oil Liq Any 0 Phenobarbitone sodium Powder Any 0 Phenol Liq Any 0 Pilocarpine nitrate Powder Any 0 Polyhexamethylene biguanide Liq Any 0 Povidone K30 Powder Any 0 Silver nitrate Crystals Any 0 Sodium citrate Powder Any 0 Sodium metabisulfite Powder Any 0 Starch Powder Any 0 Tri-sodium citrate Crystals Any 0 Trichloracetic acid Grans Any 0 Urea Powder BP Any 0 Wool fat Oint, anhydrous Any 0 Xanthan Gum 1% Any 0 Zinc oxide Powder Any 0 Theobroma oil Oint Any 0 Hydrocortisone Powder ABM 25 49.95 Codeine phosphate Powder Any 0 Methadone hydrochloride Powder Any 0 Sodium bicarbonate Powder BP Any 0 Glucose [Dextrose] Powder Any 0 Glycerol Liq healthE Glycerol BP Liquid 500 3.28 Syrup Liq (pharmaceutical grade) Midwest 2000 21.75 Methyl hydroxybenzoate Powder Any 0 Methylcellulose Powder Any 0 Suspension Ora-Plus 473 32.50 Propylene glycol Liq ABM 500 12.00 Salicylic acid Powder Any 0 Sulphur Sublimed Any 0 Precipitated Any 0 Paraffin Liq Any 0 Chlorhexidine gluconate Soln 20 % Any 0 Ascorbic acid Powder Any 0 Glycerin with sucrose Suspension Ora-Sweet 473 32.50 Glycerin with sodium saccharin Suspension Ora-Sweet SF 473 32.50 Methylcellulose with glycerin and sucrose Suspension Ora-Blend 473 32.50 Methylcellulose with glycerin and sodium saccharin Suspension Ora-Blend SF 473 32.50 Special Foods Food Modules Carbohydrate <range>Carbohydrate</range> Cystic fibrosis Chronic kidney disease Cancer in children Cancers affecting alimentary tract where there are malabsorption problems in patients over the age of 20 years Faltering growth in an infant/child Bronchopulmonary dysplasia Premature and post premature infant Inborn errors of metabolism medical practitioner For use as a component in a modular formula made from at least one nutrient module and at least one further product listed in Section D of the Pharmaceutical Schedule or breast milk medical practitioner

Patients are required to meet any Special Authority criteria associated with all of the products used in the modular formula.

 Fat <range>Fat</range> Patient has inborn errors of metabolism Faltering growth in an infant/child Bronchopulmonary dysplasia Fat malabsorption Lymphangiectasia Short bowel syndrome Infants with necrotising enterocolitis Biliary atresia For use in a ketogenic diet Chyle leak Ascites Patient has increased energy requirements, and for whom dietary measures have not been successful medical practitioner For use as a component in a modular formula made from at least one nutrient module and at least one further product listed in Section D of the Pharmaceutical Schedule or breast milk. medical practitioner

Patients are required to meet any Special Authority criteria associated with all of the products used in the modular formula.

 Protein <range>Protein</range> Protein losing enteropathy High protein needs medical practitioner For use as a component in a modular formula made from at least one nutrient module and at least one further product listed in Section D of the Pharmaceutical Schedule or breast milk. medical practitioner

Patients are required to meet any Special Authority criteria associated with all of the products used in the modular formula.

 Other Supplements Breast milk fortifier Powder 0.2 g protein, 0.7 g carbohydrate and 0.02 g fat per 1 g sachet e.g. FM 85 0 Powder 0.6 g protein and 1.4 g carbohydrate per 2.2 g sachet e.g. Nutricia Breast Milk Fortifer 0 Powder 0.5 g protein, 1.2 g carbohydrate and 0.08 g fat per 2 g sachet e.g. S26 Human Milk Fortifier 0 Carbohydrate and fat supplement <range>Carbohydrate and fat supplement</range> Infant or child aged four years or under Cystic fibrosis Cancer in children Faltering growth Bronchopulmonary dysplasia Premature and post premature infants medical practitioner Food/Fluid Thickeners

NOTE:

While pre-thickened drinks and supplements have not been included in Section H, DHB hospitals may continue to use such products for patients with dysphagia, provided that:

  • use was established prior to 1 July 2013; and

  • the product has not been specifically considered and excluded by PHARMAC; and

  • use of the product conforms to any applicable indication restrictions for similar products that are listed in Section H (for example, use of thickened high protein products should be in line with the restriction for high protein oral feed in Section H).

PHARMAC intends to make a further decision in relation to pre-thickened drinks and supplements in the future, and will notify of any change to this situation.

Food/Fluid Thickeners Carob bean gum with maize starch and maltodextrin Powder e.g. Feed Thickener Karicare Aptamil 0 Guar gum Powder e.g. Guarcol 0 Maize starch Powder e.g. Resource Thicken Up; Nutilis 0 Maltodextrin with xanthan gum Powder e.g. Instant Thick 0 Maltodextrin with xanthan gum and ascorbic acid Powder e.g. Easy Thick 0 Metabolic Products <range>Metabolic Products</range> For the dietary management of homocystinuria, maple syrup urine disease, phenylketonuria (PKU), glutaric aciduria, isovaleric acidaemia, propionic acidaemia, methylmalonic acidaemia, tyrosinaemia or urea cycle disorders Patient has adrenoleukodystrophy For use as a supplement to the Ketogenic diet in patients diagnosed with epilepsy medical practitioner Specialised Formulas Diabetic Products <range>Diabetic Products</range> For patients with type I or type II diabetes suffering weight loss and malnutrition that requires nutritional support For patients with pancreatic insufficiency For patients who have, or are expected to, eat little or nothing for 5 days For patients who have a poor absorptive capacity and/or high nutrient losses and/or increased nutritional needs from causes such as catabolism For use pre- and post-surgery For patients being tube-fed For tube-feeding as a transition from intravenous nutrition medical practitioner Elemental and Semi-Elemental Products <range>Elemental and Semi-Elemental Products</range> Malabsorption Short bowel syndrome Enterocutaneous fistulas Eosinophilic enteritis (including oesophagitis) Inflammatory bowel disease Acute pancreatitis where standard feeds are not tolerated Patients with multiple food allergies requiring enteral feeding medical practitioner Fat Modified Products Fat-modified feed <range>Fat-modified feed</range> Patient has metabolic disorders of fat metabolism Patient has a chyle leak Modified as a modular feed, made from at least one nutrient module and at least one further product listed in Section D of the Pharmaceutical Schedule, for adults medical practitioner

Patients are required to meet any Special Authority criteria associated with all of the products used in the modular formula.

Hepatic Products <range>Hepatic Products</range> For children (up to 18 years) who require a liver transplant medical practitioner High Calorie Products <range>High Calorie Products</range> Patient is fluid volume or rate restricted Patient requires low electrolyte Cystic fibrosis Any condition causing malabsorption Faltering growth in an infant/child Increased nutritional requirements Patient has substantially increased metabolic requirements medical practitioner High Protein Products High protein enteral feed 1.28 kcal/ml <range>High protein enteral feed</range> The patient has a high protein requirement Patient has liver disease Patient is obese (BMI > 30) and is undergoing surgery Patient is fluid restricted Patient's needs cannot be more appropriately met using high calorie product medical practitioner High protein enteral feed 1.25 kcal/ml <range>High protein enteral feed</range> The patient has a high protein requirement Patient has liver disease Patient is obese (BMI > 30) and is undergoing surgery Patient is fluid restricted Patient's needs cannot be more appropriately met using high calorie product medical practitioner Infant Formulas Extensively hydrolysed formula <range>Extensively hydrolysed formula</range> Cows' milk formula is inappropriate due to severe intolerance or allergy to its protein content Soy milk formula has been reasonably trialled without resolution of symptoms Soy milk formula is considered clinically inappropriate or contraindicated Severe malabsorption Short bowel syndrome Intractable diarrhoea Biliary atresia Cholestatic liver diseases causing malsorption Cystic fibrosis Proven fat malabsorption Severe intestinal motility disorders causing significant malabsorption Intestinal failure For step down from Amino Acid Formula medical practitioner

A reasonable trial is defined as a 2-4 week trial, or signs of an immediate IgE mediated allergic reaction.

 An assessment as to whether the infant can be transitioned to a cows' milk protein or soy infant formula has been undertaken The outcome of the assessment is that the infant continues to require an extensively hydrolysed infant formula medical practitioner Fructose-based formula Powder 14.6 g protein, 49.7 g carbohydrate and 30.8 g fat per 100 g, 400 g can e.g. Galactomin 19 0 Lactose-free formula Powder 1.5 g protein, 7.2 g carbohydrate and 3.6 g fat per 100 ml, 900 g can e.g. S26 Lactose Free 0 Powder 1.3 g protein, 7.3 g carbohydrate and 3.5 g fat per 100 ml, 900 g can e.g. Karicare Aptamil Gold De-Lact 0 Low-calcium formula Powder 14.6 g protein, 53.7 g carbohydrate and 26.1 g fat per 100 g, 400 g can e.g. Locasol 0 Preterm formula <range>Preterm formula</range> For infants born before 33 weeks' gestation or weighing less than 1.5 kg at birth medical practitioner Thickened formula Powder 1.8 g protein, 8.1 g carbohydrate and 3.3 g fat per 100 ml, 900 g can e.g. Karicare Aptamil Thickened AR 0 Paediatric oral/enteral feed 1 kcal/ml <range>Paediatric oral/enteral feed 1 kcal/ml</range> The patient is fluid restricted or volume intolerant The patient has increased nutritional requirements due to faltering growth Patient is under 18 months old and weighs less than 8kg medical practitioner

‘Volume intolerant’ patients are those who are unable to tolerate an adequate volume of infant formula to achieve expected growth rate. These patients should have first trialled appropriate clinical alternative treatments, such as concentrating, fortifying and adjusting the frequency of feeding.

 Amino acid formula <range>Amino acid formula</range> Extensively hydrolysed formula has been reasonably trialled and is inappropriate due to documented severe intolerance or allergy or malabsorption History of anaphylaxis to cows' milk protein formula or dairy products Eosinophilic oesophagitis medical practitioner

A reasonable trial is defined as a 2-4 week trial.

 An assessment as to whether the infant can be transitioned to a cows' milk protein, soy, or extensively hydrolysed infant formula has been undertaken The outcome of the assessment is that the infant continues to require an amino acid infant formula medical practitioner Ketogenic Diet Products High fat formula <range>High fat formula</range> For patients with intractable epilepsy, pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency or glucose transported type-1 deficiency and other conditions requiring a ketogenic diet medical practitioner Paediatric Products <range>Paediatric Products</range> Child is aged one to ten years The child is being fed via a tube or a tube is to be inserted for the purposes of feeding Any condition causing malabsorption Faltering growth in an infant/child Increased nutritional requirements The child is being transitioned from TPN or tube feeding to oral feeding The child has eaten, or is expected to eat, little or nothing for 3 days medical practitioner Renal Products Low electrolyte oral feed <range>Low electrolyte oral feed</range> For children (up to 18 years) with acute or chronic kidney disease medical practitioner Low electrolyte enteral feed 1.8 kcal/ml <range>Low electrolyte enteral feed 1.8 kcal/ml</range> For patients with acute or chronic kidney disease medical practitioner Low electrolyte oral feed 1.8 kcal/ml Liquid 8 g protein, 14.74 g carbohydrate, 9.77 g fat and 1.26 g fibre per 100 ml, carton <range>Low electrolyte oral feed</range> For patients with acute or chronic kidney disease medical practitioner Low electrolyte oral feed 2 kcal/ml <range>Low electrolyte oral feed</range> For patients with acute or chronic kidney disease medical practitioner Respiratory Products Low carbohydrate oral feed 1.5 kcal/ml <range>Low carbohydrate oral feed 1.5 kcal/ml</range> For patients with CORD and hypercapnia, defined as a CO2 value exceeding 55 mmHg medical practitioner Surgical Products Preoperative carbohydrate feed 0.5 kcal/ml <range>Preoperative carbohydrate feed 0.5 kcal/ml</range> Maximum of 400 ml as part of an Enhanced Recovery After Surgery (ERAS) protocol 2 to 3 hours before major abdominal surgery medical practitioner High arginine oral feed 1.4 kcal/ml <range>High arginine oral feed 1.4 kcal/ml</range> Three packs per day for 5 to 7 days prior to major gastrointestinal, head or neck surgery medical practitioner Standard Feeds <range>Standard Feeds</range> For patients with malnutrition, defined as any of the following: BMI < 18.5 Greater than 10% weight loss in the last 3-6 months BMI < 20 with greater than 5% weight loss in the last 3-6 months For patients who have, or are expected to, eat little or nothing for 5 days For patients who have a poor absorptive capacity and/or high nutrient losses and/or increased nutritional needs from causes such as catabolism For use pre- and post-surgery For patients being tube-fed For tube-feeding as a transition from intravenous nutrition For any other condition that meets the community Special Authority criteria medical practitioner Vaccines Bacterial and Viral Vaccines Bacterial and Viral Vaccines Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis and polio vaccine <range>Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis and polio vaccine</range> A single dose for children up to the age of 7 who have completed primary immunisation A course of up to four vaccines is funded for catch up programmes for children (to the age of 10 years) to complete full primary immunisation An additional four doses (as appropriate) are funded for (re-)immunisation for patients post HSCT, or chemotherapy; pre- or post splenectomy; pre- or post solid organ transplant, renal dialysis and other severely immunosuppressive regimens Five doses will be funded for children requiring solid organ transplantation medical practitioner

Please refer to the Immunisation Handbook for appropriate schedule for catch up programmes

 Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, hepatitis B and haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine <range>Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, hepatitis B and haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine</range> Up to four doses for children up to and under the age of 10 for primary immunisation An additional four doses (as appropriate) are funded for (re-)immunisation for children up to and under the age of 10 who are patients post haematopoietic stem cell transplantation, or chemotherapy; pre or post splenectomy; pre- or post solid organ transplant, renal dialysis and other severely immunosuppressive regimens Up to five doses for children up to and under the age of 10 receiving solid organ transplantation medical practitioner

A course of up-to four vaccines is funded for catch up programmes for children (up to and under the age of 10 years) to complete full primary immunisation. Please refer to the Immunisation Handbook for the appropriate schedule for catch up programmes.

 Bacterial Vaccines Bacterial Vaccines Bacillus calmette-guerin vaccine <range>Bacillus calmette-guerin vaccine</range> For infants at increased risk of tuberculosis defined as: Living in a house or family with a person with current or past history of TB Having one or more household members or carers who within the last 5 years lived in a country with a rate of TB > or equal to 40 per 100,000 for 6 months or longer During their first 5 years will be living 3 months or longer in a country with a rate of TB > or equal to 40 per 100,000 medical practitioner

A list of countries with high rates of TB are available at http://www.health.govt.nz/tuberculosis (Search for Downloads) or www.bcgatlas.org/index.php

 Adult diphtheria and tetanus vaccine Inj 2 IU diphtheria toxoid with 20 IU tetanus toxoid in 0.5 ml syringe <range>Adult diphtheria and tetanus vaccine - Inj 2 IU diphtheria toxoid with 20 IU tetanus toxoid in 0.5 ml syringe</range> For vaccination of patients aged 45 and 65 years old For vaccination of previously unimmunised or partially immunised patients For revaccination following immunosuppression For boosting of patients with tetanus-prone wounds For use in testing for primary immunodeficiency diseases, on the recommendation of an internal medicine physician or paediatrician medical practitioner

Please refer to the Immunisation Handbook for the appropriate schedule for catch up programmes.

 Diphtheria, tetanus and pertussis vaccine <range>Diphtheria, tetanus and pertussis vaccine</range> A single vaccine for pregnant woman between gestational weeks 28 and 38 A course of up to four vaccines is funded for children from age 7 up the age of 18 years inclusive to complete full primary immunisation An additional four doses (as appropriate) are funded for (re-)immunisation for patients post haematopoietic stem cell transplantation or chemotherapy; pre or post splenectomy; pre- or post solid organ transplant, renal dialysis and other severely immunosuppressive regimens medical practitioner

Tdap is not registered for patients aged less than 10 years. Please refer to the Immunisation Handbook for the appropriate schedule for catch up programmes.

 Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine <range>Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine</range> For primary vaccination in children An additional dose (as appropriate) is funded for (re-)immunisation for patients post haematopoietic stem cell transplantation, or chemotherapy; functional asplenic; pre or post splenectomy; pre- or post solid organ transplant, pre- or post cochlear implants, renal dialysis and other severely immunosuppressive regimens For use in testing for primary immunodeficiency diseases, on the recommendation of an internal medicine physician or paediatrician medical practitioner 1 Meningococcal (A, C, Y and W-135) conjugate vaccine <range>Meningococcal (A, C, Y and W-135) conjugate vaccine</range> Up to three doses and a booster every five years for patients pre- and post splenectomy and for patients with HIV, complement deficiency (acquired or inherited), functional or anatomic asplenia or pre or post solid organ transplant One dose for close contacts of meningococcal cases A maximum of two doses for bone marrow transplant patients A maximum of two doses for patients following immunosuppression* medical practitioner

children under seven years of age require two doses 8 weeks apart, a booster dose three years after the primary series and then five yearly.

*Immunosuppression due to steroid or other immunosuppressive therapy must be for a period of greater than 28 days.

 Meningococcal C conjugate vaccine <range>Meningococcal C conjugate vaccine</range> Up to three doses and a booster every five years for patients pre- and post splenectomy and for patients with HIV, complement deficiency (acquired or inherited), functional or anatomic asplenia or pre or post solid organ transplant One dose for close contacts of meningococcal cases A maximum of two doses for bone marrow transplant patients A maximum of two doses for patients following immunosuppression* medical practitioner

children under seven years of age require two doses 8 weeks apart, a booster dose three years after the primary series and then five yearly.

*Immunosuppression due to steroid or other immunosuppressive therapy must be for a period of greater than 28 days.

 Pneumococcal (PCV10) conjugate vaccine <range>Pneumococcal (PCV10) conjugate vaccine</range> A primary course of four doses for previously unvaccinated individuals up to the age of 59 months inclusive Up to three doses as appropriate to complete the primary course of immunisation for individuals under the age of 59 months who have received one to three doses of PCV13 medical practitioner

Please refer to the Immunisation Handbook for the appropriate schedule for catch up programmes

 Pneumococcal (PCV13) conjugate vaccine <range>Pneumococcal (PCV13) conjugate vaccine</range> One dose is funded for high risk children (over the age of 17 months and under 18 years) who have previously received four doses of PCV10 medical practitioner 1 Up to an additional four doses (as appropriate) are funded for children aged under 5 years for (re-)immunisation On immunosuppressive therapy or radiation therapy, vaccinate when there is expected to be a sufficient immune response With primary immune deficiencies With HIV infection With renal failure, or nephrotic syndrome Who are immune-suppressed following organ transplantation (including haematopoietic stem cell transplant) With cochlear implants or intracranial shunts With cerebrospinal fluid leaks Receiving corticosteroid therapy for more than two weeks, and who are on an equivalent daily dosage of prednisone of 2 mg/kg per day or greater, or children who weigh more than 10 kg on a total daily dosage of 20 mg or greater With chronic pulmonary disease (including asthma treated with high-dose corticosteroid therapy) Pre term infants, born before 28 weeks gestation With cardiac disease, with cyanosis or failure With diabetes With Down syndrome Who are pre-or post-splenectomy, or with functional asplenia medical practitioner 4 Up to an additional four doses (as appropriate) are funded for (re-)immunisation of patients 5 years and over with HIV, for patients pre or post haematopoietic stem cell transplantation, or chemotherapy; pre- or post splenectomy; functional asplenia, pre- or post- solid organ transplant, renal dialysis, complement deficiency (acquired or inherited), cochlear implants, or primary immunodeficiency medical practitioner 4 For use in testing for primary immunodeficiency diseases, on the recommendation of an internal medicine physician or paediatrician medical practitioner

Please refer to the Immunisation Handbook for the appropriate schedule for catch up programmes

 Pneumococcal (PPV23) polysaccharide vaccine <range>Pneumococcal (PPV23) polysaccharide vaccine</range> For patients with HIV, for patients post haematopoietic stem cell transplant, or chemotherapy; pre- or post-splenectomy; or with functional asplenia, pre- or post-solid organ transplant, renal dialysis, complement deficiency (acquired or inherited), cochlear implants, or primary immunodeficiency medical practitioner 3 Patient is a child under 18 years for (re-)immunisation On immunosuppressive therapy or radiation therapy, vaccinate when there is expected to be a sufficient immune response With primary immune deficiencies With HIV infection With renal failure, or nephrotic syndrome Who are immune-suppressed following organ transplantation (including haematopoietic stem cell transplant) With cochlear implants or intracranial shunts With cerebrospinal fluid leaks Receiving corticosteroid therapy for more than two weeks, and who are on an equivalent daily dosage of prednisone of 2 mg/kg per day or greater, or children who weigh more than 10 kg on a total daily dosage of 20 mg or greater With chronic pulmonary disease (including asthma treated with high-dose corticosteroid therapy) Pre term infants, born before 28 weeks gestation With cardiac disease, with cyanosis or failure With diabetes With Down syndrome Who are pre-or post-splenectomy, or with functional asplenia medical practitioner 2 For use in testing for primary immunodeficiency diseases, on the recommendation of an internal medicine physician or paediatrician medical practitioner Salmonella typhi vaccine <range>Salmonella typhi vaccine</range> For use during typhoid fever outbreaks medical practitioner Viral Vaccines Viral Vaccines Hepatitis A vaccine <range>Hepatitis A vaccine</range> Two vaccinations for use in transplant patients Two vaccinations for use in children with chronic liver disease One dose of vaccine for close contacts of known hepatitis A cases medical practitioner Hepatitis B recombinant vaccine Inj 10 mcg in 1 ml vial <range>Hepatitis B recombinant vaccine</range> For household or sexual contacts of known acute hepatitis B patients or hepatitis B carriers For children born to mothers who are hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) positive For children up to and under the age of 18 years inclusive who are considered not to have achieved a positive serology and require additional vaccination or require a primary course of vaccination For HIV positive patients For hepatitis C positive patients for patients following non-consensual sexual intercourse For patients following immunosuppression For solid organ transplant patients For post-haematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) patients Following needle stick injury medical practitioner Inj 5 mcg in 0.5 ml vial <range>Hepatitis B recombinant vaccine</range> For household or sexual contacts of known acute hepatitis B patients or hepatitis B carriers For children born to mothers who are hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) positive For children up to and under the age of 18 years inclusive who are considered not to have achieved a positive serology and require additional vaccination or require a primary course of vaccination For HIV positive patients For hepatitis C positive patients for patients following non-consensual sexual intercourse For patients following immunosuppression For solid organ transplant patients For post-haematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) patients Following needle stick injury medical practitioner Inj 40 mcg per 1 ml vial <range>Hepatitis B recombinant vaccine - Inj 40 mcg per 1 ml vial</range> For dialysis patients For liver or kidney transplant patient medical practitioner Inj 20 mcg per 1 ml prefilled syringe <range>Hepatitis B recombinant vaccine</range> For household or sexual contacts of known acute hepatitis B patients or hepatitis B carriers For children born to mothers who are hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) positive For children up to and under the age of 18 years inclusive who are considered not to have achieved a positive serology and require additional vaccination or require a primary course of vaccination For HIV positive patients For hepatitis C positive patients for patients following non-consensual sexual intercourse For patients following immunosuppression For solid organ transplant patients For post-haematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) patients Following needle stick injury medical practitioner Influenza vaccine Inj 60 mcg in 0.5 ml syringe (quadrivalent vaccine) <range>Influenza vaccine Inj 60 mcg in 0.5 ml syringe (quadrivalent vaccine)</range> The patient is 65 years of age or over medical practitioner Ischaemic heart disease Congestive heart failure Rheumatic heart disease Congenital heart disease Cerebro-vascular disease medical practitioner

hypertension and/or dyslipidaemia without evidence of end-organ disease is excluded from funding.

 Asthma, if on a regular preventative therapy Other chronic respiratory disease with impaired lung function medical practitioner

asthma not requiring regular preventative therapy is excluded from funding.

 Diabetes chronic renal disease Any cancer, excluding basal and squamous skin cancers if not invasive Autoimmune disease Immune suppression or immune deficiency HIV Transplant recipient Neuromuscular and CNS diseases/ disorders Haemoglobinopathies Is a child on long term aspirin Has a cochlear implant Errors of metabolism at risk of major metabolic decompensation Pre and post splenectomy Down syndrome Is pregnant Is a child aged four and under who has been hospitalised for respiratory illness or has a history of significant respiratory illness Patients in a long-stay inpatient mental health care unit or who are compulsorily detained long-term in a forensic unit within a DHB hospital People under 18 years of age living in the Seddon/Ward and rural Eastern Marlborough region (within the Nelson Marlborough District Health Board) and Kaikoura and Hurunui areas (within the Canterbury District Health Board) People under 18 years of age who have been displaced from their homes in Edgecumbe and the surrounding region medical practitioner Inj 60 mcg in 0.5 ml syringe (paediatric quadrivalent vaccine) <range>Influenza vaccine Inj 60 mcg in 0.5 ml syringe (paediatric quadrivalent vaccine)</range> Ischaemic heart disease Congestive heart failure Rheumatic heart disease Congenital heart disease Cerebro-vascular disease medical practitioner

hypertension and/or dyslipidaemia without evidence of end-organ disease is excluded from funding.

 Asthma, if on a regular preventative therapy Other chronic respiratory disease with impaired lung function medical practitioner

asthma not requiring regular preventative therapy is excluded from funding.

 Diabetes Chronic renal disease Any cancer, excluding basal and squamous skin cancers if not invasive Autoimmune disease Immune suppression or immune deficiency HIV Transplant recipient Neuromuscular and CNS diseases/ disorders Haemoglobinopathies Is a child on long term aspirin Has a cochlear implant Errors of metabolism at risk of major metabolic decompensation Pre and post splenectomy Down syndrome Child who has been hospitalised for respiratory illness or has a history of significant respiratory illness Child is living in the Seddon/Ward and rural Eastern Marlborough region (within the Nelson Marlborough District Health Board) and Kaikoura and Hurunui areas (within the Canterbury District Health Board) Child has been displaced from their homes in Edgecumbe and the surrounding region medical practitioner Inj 45 mcg in 0.5 ml syringe (trivalent vaccine) <range>Influenza vaccine (trivalent)</range> The patient is 65 years of age or over medical practitioner Ischaemic heart disease Congestive heart failure Rheumatic heart disease Congenital heart disease Cerebro-vascular disease medical practitioner

hypertension and/or dyslipidaemia without evidence of end-organ disease is excluded from funding.

 Asthma, if on a regular preventative therapy Other chronic respiratory disease with impaired lung function medical practitioner

asthma not requiring regular preventative therapy is excluded from funding.

 Diabetes Chronic renal disease Any cancer, excluding basal and squamous skin cancers if not invasive Autoimmune disease Immune suppression or immune deficiency HIV Transplant recipient Neuromuscular and CNS diseases/ disorders Haemoglobinopathies Is a child on long term aspirin Has a cochlear implant Errors of metabolism at risk of major metabolic decompensation Pre and post splenectomy Down syndrome Is pregnant Is a child aged four and under who has been hospitalised for respiratory illness or has a history of significant respiratory illness Patients in a long-stay inpatient mental health care unit or who are compulsorily detained long-term in a forensic unit within a DHB hospital People under 18 years of age living in the Seddon/Ward and rural Eastern Marlborough region (within the Nelson Marlborough District Health Board) and Kaikoura and Hurunui areas (within the Canterbury District Health Board) People under 18 years of age who have been displaced from their homes in Edgecumbe and the surrounding region medical practitioner Measles, mumps and rubella vaccine <range>Measles, mumps and rubella vaccine</range> For primary vaccination in children For revaccination following immunosuppression For any individual susceptible to measles, mumps or rubella medical practitioner 3 For primary vaccination in children For revaccination following immunosuppression For any individual susceptible to measles, mumps or rubella medical practitioner 2

Please refer to the Immunisation Handbook for appropriate schedule for catch up programmes.

 Poliomyelitis vaccine <range>Poliomyelitis vaccine</range> For partially vaccinated or previously unvaccinated individuals For revaccination following immunosuppression medical practitioner 3

Please refer to the Immunisation Handbook for the appropriate schedule for catch up programmes.

 Rabies vaccine Inj 2.5 IU vial with diluent Any 0 Varicella vaccine [Chickenpox vaccine] <range>Varicella vaccine [Chickenpox vaccine]</range> Any infant born on or after 1 April 2016 For previously unvaccinated children turning 11 years old on or after 1 July 2017, who have not previously had a varicella infection (chickenpox) medical practitioner 1 for non-immune patients: With chronic liver disease who may in future be candidates for transplantation With deteriorating renal function before transplantation Prior to solid organ transplant Prior to any elective immunosuppression* For post exposure prophylaxis who are immune competent inpatients For patients at least 2 years after bone marrow transplantation, on advice of their specialist For patients at least 6 months after completion of chemotherapy, on advice of their specialist For HIV positive patients non immune to varicella with mild or moderate immunosuppression on advice of HIV specialist For patients with inborn errors of metabolism at risk of major metabolic decompensation, with no clinical history of varicella For household contacts of paediatric patients who are immunocompromised, or undergoing a procedure leading to immune compromise where the household contact has no clinical history of varicella For household contacts of adult patients who have no clinical history of varicella and who are severely immunocompromised or undergoing a procedure leading to immune compromise where the household contact has no clinical history of varicella medical practitioner 2

* immunosuppression due to steroid or other immunosuppressive therapy must be for a treatment period of greater than 28 days

 Human papillomavirus (6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52 and 58) vaccine [HPV] <range>Human papillomavirus (6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52 and 58) vaccine [HPV]</range> Children aged 14 years and under medical practitioner 2 Up to 3 doses for people aged 15 to 26 years inclusive People aged 9 to 26 years inclusive Up to 3 doses for confirmed HIV infection Up to 3 doses for transplant (including stem cell) patients Up to 4 doses for Post chemotherapy medical practitioner Rotavirus oral vaccine <range>Rotavirus oral vaccine</range> First dose to be administered in infants aged under 14 weeks of age No vaccination being administered to children aged 24 weeks or over medical practitioner 2 Varicella zoster vaccine [Shingles vaccine] <range>Varicella zoster vaccine [shingles vaccine]</range> One dose for all people aged 65 years medical practitioner 1 One dose for all people aged between 66 and 80 years inclusive from 1 April 2018 and 31 March 2020 medical practitioner 1 Diagnostic Agents Diagnostic Agents Tuberculin PPD [Mantoux] test Inj 5 TU per 0.1 ml, 1 ml vial Tubersol 1 0.00 Part III - OPTIONAL PHARMACEUTICALS Optional Pharmaceuticals

NOTE:

In addition to the products expressly listed here in Part III: Optional Pharmaceuticals, a range of hospital medical devices are listed in an addendum to Part III which is available at www.pharmac.govt.nz. The Optional Pharmaceuticals listed in the addendum are deemed to be listed in Part III, and the Rules of the Pharmaceutical Schedule applying to products listed in Part III apply to them.

Optional Pharmaceuticals Pregnancy test - hCG urine Cassette Smith BioMed Rapid Pregnancy Test 40 12.00 Blood ketone diagnostic test strip Test strips KetoSens 10 15.50 Dual blood glucose and blood ketone diagnostic test meter Meter with 50 lancets, a lancing device, and 10 blood glucose diagnostic test strips CareSens Dual 1 20.00 Insulin pen needles 29 g x 12.7 mm B-D Micro-Fine 100 10.50 31 g x 6 mm ABM 100 10.50 31 g x 8 mm B-D Micro-Fine 100 10.50 31 g x 5 mm B-D Micro-Fine 100 11.75 32 g x 4 mm B-D Micro-Fine 100 10.50 Insulin syringes, disposable with attached needle Syringe 0.3 ml with 29 g x 12.7 mm needle B-D Ultra Fine 100 13.00 Syringe 0.3 ml with 31 g x 8 mm needle B-D Ultra Fine II 100 13.00 Syringe 0.5 ml with 29 g x 12.7 mm needle B-D Ultra Fine 100 13.00 Syringe 0.5 ml with 31 g x 8 mm needle B-D Ultra Fine II 100 13.00 Syringe 1 ml with 29 g x 12.7 mm needle B-D Ultra Fine 100 13.00 Syringe 1 ml with 31 g x 8 mm needle B-D Ultra Fine II 100 13.00 Blood glucose diagnostic test strip Blood glucose test strips CareSens N 50 10.56 Test strips CareSens PRO 50 10.56 Blood glucose diagnostic test meter 1 meter with 50 lancets, a lancing device, and 10 diagnostic test strips Caresens N 1 10.00 Caresens N POP 1 10.00 CareSens N Premier 1 20.00 Spacer device 800 ml Volumatic 1 6.50 220 ml (single patient) e-chamber Turbo 1 2.95 510 ml (single patient) e-chamber La Grande 1 5.12 Mask for spacer device Small e-chamber Mask 1 2.20 Peak flow meter Low Range Mini-Wright AFS Low Range 1 9.54 Normal Range Mini-Wright Standard 1 9.54 Sodium nitroprusside Test strip Ketostix 50 22.00